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必过1030_ · 2019年12月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019103001000062

问题如下:

Susan Winslow manages bond funds denominated in US Dollars, Euros, and British Pounds. Each fund invests in sovereign bonds and related derivatives. Each fund can invest a portion of its assets outside its base currency market with or without hedging the currency exposure, but to date Winslow has not utilized this capacity. She believes she can also hedge bonds into currencies other than a portfolio’s base currency when she expects doing so will add value. However, the legal department has not yet confirmed this interpretation. If the lawyers disagree, Winslow will be limited to either unhedged positions or hedging into each portfolio’s base currency.

Winslow thinks the Mexican and Greek markets may offer attractive opportunities to enhance returns. Yields in these markets are given in Exhibit 1, along with those for the base currencies of her portfolios. The Greek rates are for euro-denominated government bonds priced at par. In the other markets, the yields apply to par sovereign bonds as well as to the fixed side of swaps versus six-month Libor (i.e., swap spreads are zero in each market). The six-month Libor rates also represent the rates at which investors can borrow or lend in each currency. Winslow observes that the five-year Treasury-note and the five-year German government note are the cheapest to deliver against their respective futures contracts expiring in six months.

Winslow expects yields in the US, Euro, UK, and Greek markets to remain stable over the next six months. She expects Mexican yields to decline to 7.0% at all maturities. Meanwhile, she projects that the Mexican Peso will depreciate by 2% against the Euro, the US Dollar will depreciate by 1% against the Euro, and the British Pound will remain stable versus the Euro. Winslow believes bonds of the same maturity may be viewed as having the same duration for purposes of identifying the most attractive positions.

Based on these views, Winslow is considering three types of trades. First, she is looking at carry trades, with or without taking currency exposure, among her three base currency markets. Each such trade will involve extending duration (e.g., lend long/borrow short) in no more than one market. Second, assuming the legal department confirms her interpretation of permissible currency hedging, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and currency exposure for each of her three portfolios from among the five markets shown in Exhibit 1. Third, she wants to identify the most attractive five-year bond and hedging decision for each portfolio if she is only allowed to hedge into the portfolio’s base currency.

Considering only the US, UK, and Euro markets, the most attractive duration-neutral, currency-neutral carry trade could be implemented as:

选项:

A.

Buy 3-year UK Gilts, Sell 3-year German notes, and enter a 6-month FX forward contract to pay EUR/receive GBP

B.

Receive fixed/pay floating on a 3-year GBP interest rate swap and receive floating/pay fixed on a 3-year EUR interest rate swap.

C.

Buy the T-note futures contract and sell the German note futures contract for delivery in six months.

解释:

B is correct.

In order to be duration-neutral and currency-neutral, the trade must lend long/borrow short in one market and do the opposite (lend short/borrow long), with the same maturities, in another market. The best carry is obtained by lending long/borrowing short on the steepest curve and lending short/borrowing long on the flattest curve. The GBP curve is the steepest and the EUR curve is the flattest. The largest yield spread between these markets is 0.55% at the 3-year maturity, and the narrowest spread is 0.35% at the 6-month maturity. Hence, the best trade is to go long the GBP 3-year/short the EUR 3-year and long the EUR 6-month/short the GBP 6-month. This can be implemented in the swaps market by receiving 3-year fixed/paying 6-month floating in GBP and doing the opposite in EUR (receiving 6-month floating/paying 3-year fixed). The net carry is +0.10% = [(0.95% – 0.50%) + (0.15% – 0.40%)]/2 for six months.

A is incorrect. The FX forward position as stated (pay EUR/receive GBP) corresponds to implicitly borrowing EUR for six months and lending GBP for six months. Correct execution of the trade would require the opposite, receiving EUR and delivering GBP 6 months forward.

C is incorrect. This combination of futures positions does create a duration-neutral, currency neutral carry trade, but it is not the highest available carry. Since the T-note futures price reflects the pricing of the 5-year note as cheapest to deliver, the long position in this contract is equivalent to buying the 5-year Treasury and financing it for 6 months. This generates net carry of 0.275% = (1.95% – 1.40%)/2. Similarly, the short position in the German note futures is equivalent to being short the 5-year German note and lending the proceeds for 6 months, generating net carry of –0.225% = (0.15% – 0.60%)/2. The combined carry is 0.05%, half of what is available on the position in B.

怎么判断什么时候要划算成hedged return,什么时候不用呢?

1 个答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2019年12月16日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


“怎么判断什么时候要划算成hedged return,什么时候不用呢?”


 

一共是两种题型,这里按课后题类型大概总结下,具体做题的时候这几道可以一起做下对比下。

一种是Carry trade的题型:无需考虑Hedged return,两国利率直接相减算息差即可。

第二种是国外债券投资的题型:需要考虑Hedged return。


首先是Carry trade。本题就是一道Carry trade,不过是一种特殊的Carry trade。

题目的要求:...the most attractive duration-neutral, currency-neutral carry trade could be implemented as;

我们要用的策略就是:Duration-neutral,Currency-neutral,Most attractive carry trade;

所以,这是一个Carry trade的策略,对于carry trade的策略就是赚取息差最大化,我们无需进行Hedge,也就不需要计算Hedged return。直接看市场之间的息差即可。

A选项因为无法构成Duration-neutral/Currency neutral的Carry trade,所以直接排除;

B/C两个选项可以构成Duration-neutral/Currency neutral的Carry trade,我们就比较两个选项,哪个息差收益大就选哪个。比较Carry trade收益时,两个市场获得的利息差可以直接相加,无需考虑Hedge的问题。这是本题的解法。

至于本题说的Currency-neutral是指:借钱、投资,赚取息差的过程在一个市场内部完成。所以赚取息差不存在汇率问题,例如,B选项在UK市场上借低投高,就在UK市场内部获得了Carry trade的息差。但是为了构建Duration-neutral,我们在第二个市场(德国)也进行了借贷,两个市场结合起来也是有汇率转换的问题,但是与Carry trade赚取息差的过程无关,这里我们无需考虑汇率问题。

像本题的解析一样,算B/C哪个选项是最Attractive的Carry trade时,两个市场上获得的息差直接相加即可,不用考虑Hedged问题:

例如答案里的:(0.95% – 0.50%)/2为英国市场的息差收益; (0.15% – 0.40%)为德国市场构建Duration-neutral的收益拖累;

在计算总Carry收益时,是两个直接相加:[(0.95% – 0.50%) + (0.15% – 0.40%)]/2 ;这是Carry收益,即息差总收益。

这种Currency-neutral/Duration-neutral/Most attractive carry trade题型,直接种息差收益即可,不用考虑Hedged return。


下来就是看一下普通的Carry trade(不是上面这种特殊的Neutral型的Carry trade),他的总收益为:Carry trade收益 = 两国息差收益 + 预期汇率升贬值;

注意因为Carry trade是不Hedge掉汇率风险的,所以这种一般的Carry trade计算收益时,使用的是预期汇率的升贬值,而不是用Forward hedge带来的收益变动。所以我们也不用考虑Hedged return问题,具体可以参考Winslow case第25题和25题解析。


总结下,以上是Carry trade的题型,Carry trade题型,无论是特殊类型,还是普通类型,无需计算Hedged return:

1.第一种是普通的Carry trade,如第25题;这种题,我们计算了Carry trade的总收益:息差+预期汇率变动,不用考虑Hedged return;

2.第二种是提问的这道题,比较A/B/C选项哪个最优时,我们就直接看Carry trade的息差收益,也不用考虑Hedged return。这种题考查方式类似本题,是定性判断A选项排除,然后B/C选项计算息差收益(Net carry)判断B选项最优即可。


下面是第二种题型,就是下图的27题、28题,这种题型,是让在多个市场里,找一个最优的债券进行投资。

这种题型和Carry trade的区别是:Carry trade是借钱、投资,赚取息差的过程,是一个Long/Short的策略,目的是赚取息差,所以在判断时,直接利率相减,不用考虑Hedged return的问题;

而27、28这种题型,是购买国外债券,是一个Long only的策略,目的是获得国外债券的高收益率。

注意,这种题是让找一个收益最高的债券进行投资,所以我们需要比较不同国家、不同债券的收益大小,所以需要先把他们Hedge成一个Common currency来比对收益大小,选出收益最大的进行投资即可;

第二点就是因为投资的是海外债券,投资期末算收益时,需要把外币收益换成本币收益。于是就有27的这种题型:要么Hedge成Portfolio的Base currency,要么不Hedge;

Hedge成Base currency对应的收益就是:用Forward锁定的汇率换汇得到的收益,如果是6个月的Forward,用Forward hedge的收益约等于两国的6个月利率差。

不Hedge对应的收益就是:分析师预期的汇率升贬值;

选择Hedge与否,就是对比以上两种选择哪个收益更大,我们挑最大的进行;这是27题,投资海外债券Hedge成本币的题型。

下来是28题,28题是让Hedge成任意货币;所以就是看看用哪个Currency forward带来的换汇收益最高;实际上就是计算下,28题A/B/C三个选项,哪个币种的Forward带来的Hedge收益最高,我们就选哪个。比较方式就是:用Forward hedged return与预期升贬值进行比较。



最后总结下:

提问这道题,和原版书第25题是Carry trade的题型,不同国家的利率直接算息差即可,无需算Hedged return;而提问这道题又是一种特殊的Carry trde;

原版书27、28题,是简单的Long-only策略,就是在不同国家的债券中,找到收益最高的一个,所以首先要Hedge成Common currency比照哪个收益更高;

其次,因为是投资了海外债券,期末还要考虑如何把外币收益换回Base currency;换汇的途径就是:要么利用Forward Hedge、要么利用分析师预期的汇率升贬值;原则就是哪个收益大,用哪个方式。


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!


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