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粉红豹 · 2019年12月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ201803130100000602

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问题如下:

Construct the overall goals-based asset allocation for the Armstrongs given their three goals and Abbott’s suggestion for investing any excess capital. Show your calculations.

Show your calculations.

选项:

解释:

Guideline Answer:
■ The module that should be selected for each goal is the one that o
ers the highest return given the time horizon and required probability of success.
■ Approximately 16.4%, 12.7%, 50.4%, and 20.5% should be invested in Modules A, B, C, and D, respectively. The appropriate goals-based allocation for the Armstrongs is as follows:

 

 

 

Supporting calculations:
For Goal 1, which has a time horizon of five years and a required probability of success of 85%, Module C should be chosen because its 4.4% expected return is higher than the expected returns of all the other modules. The present value of Goal 1 is calculated as follows:
N = 5, PV = –5,000,000, I/Y = 4.4%; CPT PV = $4,031,508 (or $4.03 million)
So, approximately 50.4% of the total assets of $8 million (= $4.03 million/$8.00 million) should be allocated to Module C.

For Goal 2, which has a time horizon of 10 years and a required probability of success of 99%, Module B should be chosen because its 2.2% expected return is higher than the expected returns of all the other modules. The present value of Goal 2 is calculated as follows:

PV=$100,000/(1.022)1+$100,000(1.03)1/(1.022)2+$100,000(1.03)2/(1.022)3+...+$100,000(1.03)9/(1.022)10

PV = $1,013,670 (or $1.01 million)

So, approximately 12.7% of the total assets of $8 million (= $1.01 million/$8.00 million) should be allocated to Module B.

For Goal 3, which has a time horizon of 25 years and a required probability of success of 75%, Module D should be chosen because its 7.5% expected return is higher than the expected returns of all the other modules. The present value of
Goal 3 is calculated as follows:
N = 25, PV = –10,000,000, I/Y = 7.5%; CPT PV = $1,639,791 (or $1.64 million)
So, approximately 20.5% of the total assets of $8 million (= $1.64 million/$8.00 million) should be allocated to Module D.

Finally, the surplus of $1,315,032 (= $8,000,000 – $4,031,508 – $1,013,670 –$1,639,791), representing 16.4% (= $1.32 million/$8.00 million), should be invested in Module A following Abbott’s suggestion.

对于goal 2,如果用那种(1+r)(1+inflation)=(1+norminal discount rate)的方法做,norminal discount rate就是2.2%,inflation 是3%,求出来的r=-0.7767%。

然后按照N=10, PMT=100000,FV=0,1/Y=-0.7767, 求出来PV是1035970.5。

请问,是哪里错了?如何改?怎么理解这些每个项目的意思呢?

4 个答案

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2019年12月16日

按照我10号画的现金流图,用后付年金计算。

N=10, I/Y=-0.7767, PMT=100,000, FV=0, PV=1,044,080,PV/1.03=1,013,669.82。如果I/Y保留两位数,结果会差一点,但影响不大。

先付和后付看你怎么转换了。何老师讲的原版书课后题是将等式右边的100,000/1.022提取出来,第一项从1开始,相当于年初收到现金流,所以用的是先付年金的算法。

Sure · 2019年12月18日

老师,为什么第一年不是100000,而是100000/1.022呢?

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2019年12月18日

题干Goal 2: annual expenditures of $100,000 for the next 10 years,assuming annual inflation of 3% from Year 2 onward。1时刻第一笔支出100,000,2时刻第2笔支出开始乘以通胀100,000*(1+3%),...。1时刻现金流折到0时刻,除以1.022,2时刻现金流折到0时刻,除以1.022平方。

Sure · 2019年12月15日

但我觉得自你的算法才应该是正确答案,应该采用先付模式

Sure · 2019年12月15日

因为你的计算器选的是先付模式,按照后付模式就跟答案一致了

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2019年12月10日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


Goal 2的计算有陷阱,画现金流的图就可以发现:分子分母的次方数不对应。

要用 (1+r)(1+inflation)=(1+norminal discount rate), 也就是说我们希望折现率从第一项开始是(1+r)的一次方,(1+r)的2次方,...(1+r)的n次方。

所以要使得分子分母的次方数相同,可以等式两边同乘以(1+3%),过程如下:


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


粉红豹 · 2019年12月11日

老师,我用我算出来的1035970.5除以1.03,求出来是1005796.6,也跟答案不一样呀,为啥呀,该咋办啊

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