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冬日的拂晓 · 2019年12月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018091705000024 [ CFA III ]

为什么得出B,为什么-0.8?

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

2 个答案

努力做个学霸Sam · 2020年10月21日

请问这里为什么不能用:(1+8%)*20✘(1-15%)-(1–80/100)✘15%呢?我这里有点混乱了,我这个做法错在哪里呢?

包包_品职助教 · 2019年12月10日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


B是税基,也就是相当于我们用1块钱的资金投资的时候的起始价值,100000的资金的起始金额是80000,相当于1块钱本金的起始投资金额就是0.8元

我们算capital gain 的时候是我用针对终值减去税基的部分征税,所以是【(1+0.08)15次方- 0.8】再×税率

 


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NO.PZ2018091705000024 Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Polly. Polly investe$100,000 in asset for 20 years thpromises to offer annucapitgain of 8%, whiare ferrecapitgains. The investment account is expecteto taxe15% when capitgains are realize Assume beginning of the investment perio the investment ha cost basis of $80,000, Calculate the post-tvalue of the investment after 20 years later. $411,181.36 $372,756.35 $ 408,181.36 C is correct. 考点ferreCapitGain T解析首先,我们计算一下B = 80,000/100,000=0.8 接着我们运用税基基础不等于1时候的ferreCapitGain Tax计算,即 lFV=PV[(1+R)N−[(1+R)N−B]×TCG]100,000[(1+8%)20−[(1+0.08)20−0.8]×15%]=408,181.36{l}FV=PV{\lbrack{{(1+R)}^N-\lbrack{(1+R)}^N-B\rbrack\times T_{CG}}\rbrack}\\100,000{\lbrack{(1+8\%)}^{20}-{\lbrack{(1+0.08)}^{20}-0.8\rbrack}\times15\%\rbrack}=408,181.36lFV=PV[(1+R)N−[(1+R)N−B]×TCG​]100,000[(1+8%)20−[(1+0.08)20−0.8]×15%]=408,181.36 可否这样计算(1+8%)^20-[(1+8%)^20-1]*0.15-(1-0.8)*0.15 上面这个是blentaxing里稅基不是1的算法,为什么两个地方不一样?

2021-11-03 21:37 2 · 回答

Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Polly. Polly investe$100,000 in asset for 20 years thpromises to offer annucapitgain of 8%, whiare ferrecapitgains. The investment account is expecteto taxe15% when capitgains are realize Assume beginning of the investment perio the investment ha cost basis of $80,000, Calculate the post-tvalue of the investment after 20 years later. $411,181.36 $372,756.35 $ 408,181.36 C is correct. 考点ferreCapitGain T解析首先,我们计算一下B = 80,000/100,000=0.8 接着我们运用税基基础不等于1时候的ferreCapitGain Tax计算,即 lFV=PV[(1+R)N−[(1+R)N−B]×TCG]100,000[(1+8%)20−[(1+0.08)20−0.8]×15%]=408,181.36{l}FV=PV{\lbrack{{(1+R)}^N-\lbrack{(1+R)}^N-B\rbrack\times T_{CG}}\rbrack}\\100,000{\lbrack{(1+8\%)}^{20}-{\lbrack{(1+0.08)}^{20}-0.8\rbrack}\times15\%\rbrack}=408,181.36lFV=PV[(1+R)N−[(1+R)N−B]×TCG​]100,000[(1+8%)20−[(1+0.08)20−0.8]×15%]=408,181.36 请问这里为什么不能用:(1+8%)*20✘(1-15%)-(1–80/100)✘15%呢?我这里有点混乱了,我这个做法错在哪里呢?

2020-10-21 10:23 1 · 回答