问题如下图：何老师说用大于的公式可以得到一样的结果、但是我试了不一样呢
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
解释：
A firm's assets are currently value$700 million, its current liabilities are $120 million, anlong-term liabilities are $300 million. The stanrviation of expecteasset value is $76 million. Assume the firm hno other anththe ratio of long-term-liabilities-to-short-term-liabilities is less th1.5. Whwill the appropriate stanto fault measure when utilizing Moo’s KMV Cret Monitor Mol? 9.21 stanrviations. 5.66 stanrviations. 3.68 stanrviations. 1.87 stanrviations. B The KMV calculation is follows: stanto fault = (asset value - liability value) /stanrviation of asset value Liability value = short-term (or current) liabilities + 0.5 x long-term liabilities stanto fault = [$700m - ($120m + 0.5 x $300m)] /$76m stanto fault = 5.66 stanrviations 因为L/S ratio 适用公式错误，结果应该是4.39吧
长期债和短期债比例大于1.5时，那个计算theshhol公式是否展开后就可以简化为0.7短期债+0.7长期债？
这一题题目中条件是否互相矛盾？长期债300 短期债120 ratio应该是大于1.5？但题目中又说小于？然后最后的解答也是按长期债300，短期债120来算的？
