问题如下图:
选项:
A.
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C.
解释:
老师您好,这里不是一开始说是要算Value of equity?最后不应该是用算出的value of firm乘以equity的占比?
NO.PZ2018103102000119 问题如下 Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity using the FCFF mol with the constant growth rate of 5% infinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million anthe company is in the 30% tbracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. Wh`s the value of Company M? A.$ 96,153.85million B.$ 107,836.20million C.$$101,204.82 million C is correct.考点Valuation Mols解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)= 7.075%V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.075%−5%=$101,204.82millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.075\%-5\%}=\$101,204.82million V=WACC−gFCFF0×(1+g)=7.075%−5%2,000×1.05=$101,204.82million 你好,计算求得V0(EV)=101,204.82后,为什么不是Value=EV-mkt value of bt=101,204.82-15,000
NO.PZ2018103102000119 问题如下 Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity using the FCFF mol with the constant growth rate of 5% infinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million anthe company is in the 30% tbracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. Wh`s the value of Company M? A.$ 96,153.85million B.$ 107,836.20million C.$$101,204.82 million C is correct.考点Valuation Mols解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)= 7.075%V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.075%−5%=$101,204.82millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.075\%-5\%}=\$101,204.82million V=WACC−gFCFF0×(1+g)=7.075%−5%2,000×1.05=$101,204.82million WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re),这个公式没见过,不敢用。那是不是,equity value=firm value--优先股 value?
NO.PZ2018103102000119 如图
NO.PZ2018103102000119
NO.PZ2018103102000119 $ 100,836.20million $100,961.54 million C is correct. 考点Valuation Mols 解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1) = 7.08% V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.08%−5%=$100,961.54millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.08\%-5\%}=\$100,961.54million V=WACC−gFCFF0×(1+g)=7.08%−5%2,000×1.05=$100,961.54million算WACC时,优先股不需要1—t吗