问题如下图:
选项:
A.
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解释:
81000/73000之后为什么还要剪1啊,书上的公式没有减1啊
NO.PZ2015122802000050问题如下analyst gathers the following ta for a value-weighteinx:The return on the value-weighteinx over the periois:A.7.1%.B.11.0%.C.21.4%. is correct.It is the percentage change in the market value over the perioMarket value beginning of perio (20 × 300) + (50 × 300) + (26 × 2,000) = 73,000Market value enof perio (22 × 300) + (48 × 300) + (30 × 2,000) = 81,000Percentage change is 81,000/73,000 – 1 = 0.1096 or 11.0 percent with rounng.考点市值加权的指数1、value-weighteinx就是market-capitalization weighting市值加权的意思。2、很多同学问为何上述计算要“减 1”。我们现在要求的是收益率,81000-73000=8000才是收益,所以收益率等于8000/73000=11%,因此上述公式需要减掉1。 如题看题目就行 我已经写了
NO.PZ2015122802000050问题如下analyst gathers the following ta for a value-weighteinx:The return on the value-weighteinx over the periois:A.7.1%.B.11.0%.C.21.4%. is correct.It is the percentage change in the market value over the perioMarket value beginning of perio (20 × 300) + (50 × 300) + (26 × 2,000) = 73,000Market value enof perio (22 × 300) + (48 × 300) + (30 × 2,000) = 81,000Percentage change is 81,000/73,000 – 1 = 0.1096 or 11.0 percent with rounng.考点市值加权的指数1、value-weighteinx就是market-capitalization weighting市值加权的意思。2、很多同学问为何上述计算要“减 1”。我们现在要求的是收益率,81000-73000=8000才是收益,所以收益率等于8000/73000=11%,因此上述公式需要减掉1。 什么时候用(期末总值-期初总值)/期初总值 什么时候用(期末总值/期初总值)-1算啊 我好晕
这题我是用capitalization-weighte方法计算出来的,答案也是对的。value-weighte体是指什么?感谢解答。
怎么做,讲义讲有几何平均和算数平均,有什么区别?怎么用