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Emma · 2019年09月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000013 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

老师,能麻烦讲解下题目和计算逻辑吗?没看懂

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

1 个答案
已采纳答案

星星_品职助教 · 2019年09月10日

同学你好,

这道题考察的是Ordinary Annuity和Annuity due之间的联系。

有两个思路,建议优先使用这一种:就是无论是求PV还是FV,Annuity due的值都相当于对应期数的Ordinary Annuity的值再往后复利一期。即可以先求出Ordinary Annuity的PV,在乘以1+r,就是对应的Annuity due的PV。关于这种思路,上课视频里是有详述的,可以再回去看一看。

对于本题而言,Ordinary Annuity的PV直接给出,所以就用给出的15,443.47*(1+0.05)即可。这也就是答案解析中最后的那一句“Alternatively,….”所说的内容。

第二种描述Ordinary Annuity和Annuity due之间的联系的思路是:一个10期的Annuity due的现值可以在0时点分解为两项之和:1.0时点的PMT=2000;2. 不考虑0时点的PMT后,剩余9期PMT按照Ordinary Annuity的方式计算在0时点的PV。这就是答案解析中看似很复杂的公式的方法。第二种思路比较绕,没有第一种思路那么简单直接,所以建议优先掌握第一种。

其实这道题直接计算也可以,将计算器调成BGN模式,然后直接输入N=10,I/Y=5,PMT=2000,FV=0,CPT PV,也可以算出答案。但这个并不是题目想考察的方向。

两种年金之间关系的这个知识点也很重要,不过这是个独立知识点,数量这个科目之外应用的不多。

这个问题和上一个EAR的问题都属于基础知识。建议一定要确保完全掌握了一个知识点后,再推进到下一个知识点,不然容易乱,还得重头回来学。

加油

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