问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
按照CFO计算间接法中的cash paid to supplier方法-cash=-inv-cogs+ap+D&A怎么做?
Olive_品职助教 · 2019年08月23日
同学你好,这道题根据题目信息没法用间接法,给的条件不够。你说的cash paid to supplier的公式是直接法,但是公式写的不太对,应该是= - COGS –Δinv + ΔA/P + Depreciation included in COGS,但是这道题让算的并不是cash paid to suppliers,这道题让算的是salaries paid,也就是Cash paid to employees,应该用的公式是-Cash paid to employees=Opening wage payables + wage expense – Closing wage payables
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。 请问-20+(3-1)这个算法有什么问题。我绕进去了 完全想不明白
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。 答案的3+20-salaries pai1,我明白。但是我自己的“应付工资期末3=应付工资期初1-发了的+新增应付20,所以发了的=-18.”好像也没错啊,,,绕不出来了。
NO.PZ2016012101000101问题如下White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。如题
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。E=B+A-S年末应付工资=年初应付工资+没付的-已付的这个逻辑有什么不对么?
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。老师 这题为什么用base法则?还有其他公式能解决这道题么?