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cheeric · 2019年08月20日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000029 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

老师 请问答案中的 倒数第五行的等式是怎么来的 左边的明白 不明白的是为什么等于右边那一堆 有点想不清楚 谢谢老师 解释:

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Olive_品职助教 · 2019年08月21日

同学你好,这是计算IRR的公式,IRR是使NPV等于0的报酬率,也就是使初始投资额等于后续现金净流入的现值。等式左边其实可以理解为初始投资额,因为是分期投入的,所以都得折现到0时刻才能算是初始投资。等号右边相当于是未来现金流的流入,也就是投资的结果,分子的三个数字是用本金乘以收益率算出来的到第三年年末的本利和,因为要算的是未来现金流流入的现值,所以得再折现到0时刻,就要除以一个(1+r)^3。加油!

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NO.PZ2017092702000029问题如下A funreceives investments the beginning of eayeangenerates returns shown in the table. Whireturn measure over the three-yeperiois negative?A.Geometric mereturn B.Time-weighterate of return C.Money-weighterate of returnC is correct. The money-weighterate of return consirs both the timing anamounts of investments into the fun The investment the beginning of Ye1 will worth $1,000(1.15)(1.14)(0.96) = $1,258.56 the enof Ye3. The investment ma the beginning of Ye2 will worth $4,377.60 = $4,000(1.14)(0.96) the enof Ye3. The investment of $45,000 the beginning of Ye3 creases to a value of $45,000 (0.96) = $43,200 the enof Ye3. Solving for r,1,000+4,0001+r+45,000(1+r)2=1,258+4,337.60+43,200(1+r)31,000+\frac{4,000}{1+r}+\frac{45,000}{{(1+r)}^2}=\frac{1,258+4,337.60+43,200}{{(1+r)}^3}1,000+1+r4,000​+(1+r)245,000​=(1+r)31,258+4,337.60+43,200​results in r = –2.08%Note thB is incorrebecause the time-weighterate of return (TWR) of the funis the same the geometric mereturn of the funanis thus positive: TWR = √ 3 (1.15) (1.14) (0.96) - 1 = 7.97%跟答案完全不一样?可以告知我这算的是啥吗。。。蒙的

2024-02-26 16:08 1 · 回答

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2023-04-16 14:00 1 · 回答

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2022-12-28 15:41 2 · 回答

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2022-12-16 06:03 1 · 回答

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