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政昭 · 2019年08月20日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016062402000016 [ FRM I ]

λ=np,为什么它的最大值是1?

如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

D.

解释:

1 个答案
已采纳答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2019年08月21日

同学你好,我们最近讨论了一下这道题,觉得它是有点问题。
这道题是2004年前的真题了。我们最近查了下原版书和notes,上面并没有这道题的结论。在泊松分布中,λ的定义是单位时间内事件的发生率(发生个数)。我们推测,之所以在04年时这道题选λ最大为1,是当时FRM参考书的定义问题。但我们现在都不这样说了,因为单位时间内事件发生的个数是可以大于1的。并且,我记得之前学概率论的时候,只是强调泊松分布中,λ=np的n足够大,就可以由中心极限定理趋近于正态分布。这道题有个印象就好,万一真的考到。但我们觉得是有点问题的。

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