为什么salaries expense是+20,salaries pay是负号?这两个不都是outflow吗?
问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
Olive_品职助教 · 2019年07月29日
同学你好,对于企业来说salary expense不一定全部都支付了,假设全都没支付,那么就没有现金流流出,就对于salaries payable这个科目来说就是增加了20,但是我们现在要计算有多少salaries paid,也就是说企业并不是全都欠着的,我们要计算的就是要支付的这部分的金额,对于salary payable这个科目来说,salaries paid会减少这个科目的金额,因此是负号。使用BASE法则的时候,正负号是站在资产负债表这个科目的角度看的,如果会增加这个科目的金额,那么就是+号,如果会减少这个科目的金额,就是-号。加油!
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。 请问-20+(3-1)这个算法有什么问题。我绕进去了 完全想不明白
NO.PZ2016012101000101 问题如下 White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。 答案的3+20-salaries pai1,我明白。但是我自己的“应付工资期末3=应付工资期初1-发了的+新增应付20,所以发了的=-18.”好像也没错啊,,,绕不出来了。
NO.PZ2016012101000101问题如下White Flag, a women’s clothing manufacturer, reportesalaries expense of $20 million. The beginning balanof salaries payable w$3 million, anthe enng balanof salaries payable w$1 million. How mucash the company pin salaries? A.$18 million. B.$21 million. C.$22 million. is correct.Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million.解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。如题
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。E=B+A-S年末应付工资=年初应付工资+没付的-已付的这个逻辑有什么不对么?
NO.PZ2016012101000101 $21 million. $22 million. C is correct. Beginning salaries payable of $3 million plus salaries expense of $20 million minus enng salaries payable of $1 million equals $22 million. Alternatively, the expense of $20 million plus the $2 million crease in salaries payable equals $22 million. 解析所有资产负债表科目都可以用BASE法则。salaries payable期初是3,期末是1,当期新增的salaries expense是20。根据BASE法则,3+20-salaries pai1,可以算出salaries pai22。老师 这题为什么用base法则?还有其他公式能解决这道题么?