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ciaoyy · 2019年07月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082406000084

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

D.

解释:


1.一个债券违约概率求法为什么是2d*(1-d)?

2.一个债券违约概率是0.33%,1-0.33%>99.9%,基于谨慎原则,WCL应该是2个bond都违约的情况,为什么答案选的是1个债权违约的情况?违反谨慎性原则

1 个答案
已采纳答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2019年07月14日

同学你好,1.总共两只债券,三种情况的系数就相当于平方和公式展开的结果,所以一个违约一个不违约的概率就是2*pd*(1-pd)。

2.这种情形还是建议从损失小的往损失大的累计,2个都不违约的概率是0.9966,累计到一个违约的概率是0.9966+0.00335就已经超过99.9%了,所以根据谨慎性原则,取超过99.9%的损失大的,也就是一个违约的情形。

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