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凤鸣朝阳兮 · 2019年05月14日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000030

第一年年初现金流:-10=CF1

第一年年末现金流:-(10+10*14%)

第二年年初现金流:-[100+(10+10*14%)]=CF2

第二年年末现金流:-[(100+100*8%)+(10+10*14%*8%)]=CF3

这样理解哪里有误?为什么


另外,以上计算的是MWRR的CF现金流,怎么与TWRR对比?

(1+TWRR)^3=(1+HPR1)(1+HPR2)(1+HPR3)

怎么按计算器?



问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:



1 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2019年05月14日

首先不需要区分第二年年初与第一年末,因为这两个时间段相同,就是第一年末

第一年末的现金流就是-100。因为现金流是实实在在发生钱。这个时间点,投资人又额外交了100买股,至于之前投资获得收益,本金并没有返还他,所以不是现金流。

只有到了第二年年末,本金收益才有返还,所以这时的现金流为((10*1.14)*+100)*1.08=120.312

 

MWRR先用1.14*1.08,然后按根号键即可。总共投资期是2年,不是3年。

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NO.PZ2017092702000030问题如下the beginning of Ye1, a funh$10 million unr management; it earns a return of 14% for the year. The funattracts another $100 million the start of Ye2 anearns a return of 8% for thyear. The money-weighterate of return is most likely:A.less ththe time-weighterate of return. B.the same the time-weighterate of return. C.greater ththe time-weighterate of return.A is correct. The money-weighterate of return is founsetting the present value (PV) of investments into the funequto the PV of the funs terminvalue. Because most of the investment came ring Ye2, the measure will biasetowarthe performanof Ye2. Set the PV of investments equto the PV of the funs terminvalue: 10+1001+r=10×1.14×1.08+100×1.08(1+r)210+\frac{100}{1+r}=\frac{10\times1.14\times1.08+100\times1.08}{{(1+r)}^2}10+1+r100​=(1+r)210×1.14×1.08+100×1.08​ Solving for r results in r = 8.53%. The time-weightereturn of the funis =(1.14)(1.08)2−1=10.96\sqrt[2]{{(1.14)}{(1.08)}}-1=10.962(1.14)(1.08)​−1=10.96CF0 -10CF1 1.4-100CF2 100*0.08+10*0.08

2023-11-11 19:27 2 · 回答

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