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菜菜 · 2019年05月11日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019010402000001 [ CFA II ]

问题如下图:能帮忙具体讲解下这道题是怎么得出来的吗?为什么no-arbitrage profit还要减去0.15

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

1 个答案

包包_品职助教 · 2019年05月12日

同学你好,减去0.15是求FP的时候减的,这个0.15相当于是AIT.

这与这道题,我们先计算出这个国债期货的无套利情况下的FP,相当于是(S0+AI0-PVC0)×(1+r)T=FP+AIT,然后把数字带进去算出FP

然后再和市场上该国债期货对应的FP比较,如果二者不相等,就可以套利

市场上该国债期货对应的FP就是quoted futures price 再乘以 conversion factor。

套利利润就是公允的FP-QFP×CF

 

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