开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

iloveueat · 2019年04月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ201812310200000108 第8小题

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


由于题目给了spot rate,也给了二叉树,也给了LGD、POD等等,因此这里至少有3种求债券价格的方法,目前搞不清求到底用哪种方法?是不是凡是问求bond的fair value,都得用这个VND-CVA的方法?

用spot rate进行定价的就不是bond的fair value?,题目要怎么问的时候,才是用spot rate来valuation?另外针对不含权债券什么时候用spot rate估值,什么时候用二叉树估值?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2019年04月10日

1.VND是不考虑信用风险的价值,我们计算fair value是债券的合理价值,是需要考虑到信用风险的,所以要在VND的基础上扣减掉CVA。

2.如果在credit risk这一章出题,我们是一定要考虑到信用风险的。而在之前的章节中,我们学习到用spot rate对不含权债券定价的时候,是不考虑信用风险的。债券的无套利价格是用spot rate对债券的现金流进行折现得到的。

3.针对不含权债券,用spot rate和二叉树进行估值结果是一样的。

iloveueat · 2019年04月10日

另外原文还给出了无风险利率3%,这题的VND为什么不能用无风险利率?毕竟这个case的第三小题求Bond2的VND就是用的无风险利率,很明显用无风险利率和二叉树算出来的VND是不一样的。什么时候我们该用无风险利率求VND,什么时候该用二叉树/spot rate求VND?

iloveueat · 2019年04月10日

一个债券有不同的VND,这让我很疑惑。

吴昊_品职助教 · 2019年04月10日

第三小题用的条件是assume no interest volatility,government bond yield curve稳定在3%,所以我们用统一的折现率rf。这一小题明确说利率波动率为20%,向上倾斜的收益率曲线,用spot rate。同一个债券所用的假设不同,VND也是不同的。

  • 1

    回答
  • 1

    关注
  • 382

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ201812310200000108 问题如下 previously mentione Ibarra is consiring a future interest rate volatility of 20% and upwarsloping yielcurve, shown in Exhibit 2. Baseon her analysis, the fair value of bonis closest to: €1,101.24. €1,141.76. €1,144.63. A is correct. The following tree shows the valuation assuming no fault of bonB2, which pays a 6% annucoupon. The scheled year-encoupon anprincippayments are placeto the right of eaforwarrate in the tree. For example, the te 4 values are the principplus the coupon of 60. The following are the four te 3 values for the bon shown above the interest rate each no: €1,060/1.080804 = €980.75 €1,060/1.054164 = €1,005.54 €1,060/1.036307 = €1,022.86 €1,060/1.024338 = €1,034.81 These are the three te 2 values: (0.5�980.75+0.5�1005.54)+60 1.043999 =1008.76 (0.5�1005.54+0.5�1022.86)+60 1.029493 =1043.43 (0.5�1022.86+0.5�1034.81)+60 1.019770 =1067.73 These are the two te 1 values: (0.5�1008.76+0.5�1043.43)+60 1.021180 =1063.57 (0.5�1043.43+0.5�1067.73)+60 1.014197 =1099.96 This is the te 0 value: (0.5�1063.57+0.5�1099.96)+60 0.997500 =1144.63 So, the value of the bonassuming no fault (VN is 1,144.63. This value coulalso have been obtainemore rectly using the benchmark scount factors from Exhibit 2: €60 × 1.002506 + €60 × 0.985093 + €60 × 0.955848 + €1,060 × 0.913225 = €1,144.63. The benefit of using the binomiinterest rate tree to obtain the VNis ththe same tree is useto calculate the expecteexposure to fault loss. The cret valuation austment table is now prepared following these steps: Step 1: Compute the expecteexposures scribein the following, using the binomiinterest rate tree prepareearlier. The expected exposure for te 4 is €1,060. The expected exposure for te 3 is [(0.1250 × €980.75) + (0.3750 × €1,005.54) + (0.3750 × €1,022.86) + (0.1250 × €1,034.81)] + 60 = €1,072.60. The expected exposure for te 2 is [(0.25 × €1,008.76) + (0.50 × €1,043.43) + (0.25 × €1,067.73)] + €60 = €1,100.84. The expected exposure for te 1 is [(0.50 × €1,063.57) + (0.50 × €1,099.96)] + 60 = €1,141.76. Step 2: LG= Exposure × (1 – Recovery rate) Step 3: The initiPO also known the hazarrate, is provi1.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multiplied the previous tes’ POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate (1.5000%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.5000%). Step 4: POS is terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 5: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 6: scount factors () in YeT are obtainefrom Exhibit 2. Step 7: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €1,144.63 – CVA = €1,144.63 – €43.39 = €1,101.24. 考试的时候,一般情况下可以用表3图来计算吗?还是必须得用表2先推导出每一个节点的利率?

2023-06-18 22:33 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000108问题如下 previously mentione Ibarra is consiring a future interest rate volatility of 20% and upwarsloping yielcurve, shown in Exhibit 2. Baseon her analysis, the fair value of bonis closest to: €1,101.24. €1,141.76. €1,144.63. A is correct. The following tree shows the valuation assuming no fault of bonB2, which pays a 6% annucoupon. The scheled year-encoupon anprincippayments are placeto the right of eaforwarrate in the tree. For example, the te 4 values are the principplus the coupon of 60. The following are the four te 3 values for the bon shown above the interest rate each no: €1,060/1.080804 = €980.75 €1,060/1.054164 = €1,005.54 €1,060/1.036307 = €1,022.86 €1,060/1.024338 = €1,034.81 These are the three te 2 values: (0.5�980.75+0.5�1005.54)+60 1.043999 =1008.76 (0.5�1005.54+0.5�1022.86)+60 1.029493 =1043.43 (0.5�1022.86+0.5�1034.81)+60 1.019770 =1067.73 These are the two te 1 values: (0.5�1008.76+0.5�1043.43)+60 1.021180 =1063.57 (0.5�1043.43+0.5�1067.73)+60 1.014197 =1099.96 This is the te 0 value: (0.5�1063.57+0.5�1099.96)+60 0.997500 =1144.63 So, the value of the bonassuming no fault (VN is 1,144.63. This value coulalso have been obtainemore rectly using the benchmark scount factors from Exhibit 2: €60 × 1.002506 + €60 × 0.985093 + €60 × 0.955848 + €1,060 × 0.913225 = €1,144.63. The benefit of using the binomiinterest rate tree to obtain the VNis ththe same tree is useto calculate the expecteexposure to fault loss. The cret valuation austment table is now prepared following these steps: Step 1: Compute the expecteexposures scribein the following, using the binomiinterest rate tree prepareearlier. The expected exposure for te 4 is €1,060. The expected exposure for te 3 is [(0.1250 × €980.75) + (0.3750 × €1,005.54) + (0.3750 × €1,022.86) + (0.1250 × €1,034.81)] + 60 = €1,072.60. The expected exposure for te 2 is [(0.25 × €1,008.76) + (0.50 × €1,043.43) + (0.25 × €1,067.73)] + €60 = €1,100.84. The expected exposure for te 1 is [(0.50 × €1,063.57) + (0.50 × €1,099.96)] + 60 = €1,141.76. Step 2: LG= Exposure × (1 – Recovery rate) Step 3: The initiPO also known the hazarrate, is provi1.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multiplied the previous tes’ POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate (1.5000%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.5000%). Step 4: POS is terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 5: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 6: scount factors () in YeT are obtainefrom Exhibit 2. Step 7: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €1,144.63 – CVA = €1,144.63 – €43.39 = €1,101.24. 如题!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2023-05-17 00:21 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000108 问题如下 previously mentione Ibarra is consiring a future interest rate volatility of 20% and upwarsloping yielcurve, shown in Exhibit 2. Baseon her analysis, the fair value of bonis closest to: €1,101.24. €1,141.76. €1,144.63. A is correct. The following tree shows the valuation assuming no fault of bonB2, which pays a 6% annucoupon. The scheled year-encoupon anprincippayments are placeto the right of eaforwarrate in the tree. For example, the te 4 values are the principplus the coupon of 60. The following are the four te 3 values for the bon shown above the interest rate each no: €1,060/1.080804 = €980.75 €1,060/1.054164 = €1,005.54 €1,060/1.036307 = €1,022.86 €1,060/1.024338 = €1,034.81 These are the three te 2 values: (0.5�980.75+0.5�1005.54)+60 1.043999 =1008.76 (0.5�1005.54+0.5�1022.86)+60 1.029493 =1043.43 (0.5�1022.86+0.5�1034.81)+60 1.019770 =1067.73 These are the two te 1 values: (0.5�1008.76+0.5�1043.43)+60 1.021180 =1063.57 (0.5�1043.43+0.5�1067.73)+60 1.014197 =1099.96 This is the te 0 value: (0.5�1063.57+0.5�1099.96)+60 0.997500 =1144.63 So, the value of the bonassuming no fault (VN is 1,144.63. This value coulalso have been obtainemore rectly using the benchmark scount factors from Exhibit 2: €60 × 1.002506 + €60 × 0.985093 + €60 × 0.955848 + €1,060 × 0.913225 = €1,144.63. The benefit of using the binomiinterest rate tree to obtain the VNis ththe same tree is useto calculate the expecteexposure to fault loss. The cret valuation austment table is now prepared following these steps: Step 1: Compute the expecteexposures scribein the following, using the binomiinterest rate tree prepareearlier. The expected exposure for te 4 is €1,060. The expected exposure for te 3 is [(0.1250 × €980.75) + (0.3750 × €1,005.54) + (0.3750 × €1,022.86) + (0.1250 × €1,034.81)] + 60 = €1,072.60. The expected exposure for te 2 is [(0.25 × €1,008.76) + (0.50 × €1,043.43) + (0.25 × €1,067.73)] + €60 = €1,100.84. The expected exposure for te 1 is [(0.50 × €1,063.57) + (0.50 × €1,099.96)] + 60 = €1,141.76. Step 2: LG= Exposure × (1 – Recovery rate) Step 3: The initiPO also known the hazarrate, is provi1.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multiplied the previous tes’ POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate (1.5000%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.5000%). Step 4: POS is terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 5: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 6: scount factors () in YeT are obtainefrom Exhibit 2. Step 7: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €1,144.63 – CVA = €1,144.63 – €43.39 = €1,101.24. 我老是容易忽略这个要素,导致结果会差一点。这个 是不是就是等于 用无风险利率向前折现的因子?我这么理解对不对?

2023-03-15 11:09 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000108 问题如下 previously mentione Ibarra is consiring a future interest rate volatility of 20% and upwarsloping yielcurve, shown in Exhibit 2. Baseon her analysis, the fair value of bonis closest to: €1,101.24. €1,141.76. €1,144.63. A is correct. The following tree shows the valuation assuming no fault of bonB2, which pays a 6% annucoupon. The scheled year-encoupon anprincippayments are placeto the right of eaforwarrate in the tree. For example, the te 4 values are the principplus the coupon of 60. The following are the four te 3 values for the bon shown above the interest rate each no: €1,060/1.080804 = €980.75 €1,060/1.054164 = €1,005.54 €1,060/1.036307 = €1,022.86 €1,060/1.024338 = €1,034.81 These are the three te 2 values: (0.5�980.75+0.5�1005.54)+60 1.043999 =1008.76 (0.5�1005.54+0.5�1022.86)+60 1.029493 =1043.43 (0.5�1022.86+0.5�1034.81)+60 1.019770 =1067.73 These are the two te 1 values: (0.5�1008.76+0.5�1043.43)+60 1.021180 =1063.57 (0.5�1043.43+0.5�1067.73)+60 1.014197 =1099.96 This is the te 0 value: (0.5�1063.57+0.5�1099.96)+60 0.997500 =1144.63 So, the value of the bonassuming no fault (VN is 1,144.63. This value coulalso have been obtainemore rectly using the benchmark scount factors from Exhibit 2: €60 × 1.002506 + €60 × 0.985093 + €60 × 0.955848 + €1,060 × 0.913225 = €1,144.63. The benefit of using the binomiinterest rate tree to obtain the VNis ththe same tree is useto calculate the expecteexposure to fault loss. The cret valuation austment table is now prepared following these steps: Step 1: Compute the expecteexposures scribein the following, using the binomiinterest rate tree prepareearlier. The expected exposure for te 4 is €1,060. The expected exposure for te 3 is [(0.1250 × €980.75) + (0.3750 × €1,005.54) + (0.3750 × €1,022.86) + (0.1250 × €1,034.81)] + 60 = €1,072.60. The expected exposure for te 2 is [(0.25 × €1,008.76) + (0.50 × €1,043.43) + (0.25 × €1,067.73)] + €60 = €1,100.84. The expected exposure for te 1 is [(0.50 × €1,063.57) + (0.50 × €1,099.96)] + 60 = €1,141.76. Step 2: LG= Exposure × (1 – Recovery rate) Step 3: The initiPO also known the hazarrate, is provi1.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multiplied the previous tes’ POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate (1.5000%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.5000%). Step 4: POS is terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 5: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 6: scount factors () in YeT are obtainefrom Exhibit 2. Step 7: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €1,144.63 – CVA = €1,144.63 – €43.39 = €1,101.24. 如题

2022-08-05 10:56 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000108问题如下 previously mentione Ibarra is consiring a future interest rate volatility of 20% and upwarsloping yielcurve, shown in Exhibit 2. Baseon her analysis, the fair value of bonis closest to: €1,101.24. €1,141.76. €1,144.63. A is correct. The following tree shows the valuation assuming no fault of bonB2, which pays a 6% annucoupon. The scheled year-encoupon anprincippayments are placeto the right of eaforwarrate in the tree. For example, the te 4 values are the principplus the coupon of 60. The following are the four te 3 values for the bon shown above the interest rate each no: €1,060/1.080804 = €980.75 €1,060/1.054164 = €1,005.54 €1,060/1.036307 = €1,022.86 €1,060/1.024338 = €1,034.81 These are the three te 2 values: (0.5�980.75+0.5�1005.54)+60 1.043999 =1008.76 (0.5�1005.54+0.5�1022.86)+60 1.029493 =1043.43 (0.5�1022.86+0.5�1034.81)+60 1.019770 =1067.73 These are the two te 1 values: (0.5�1008.76+0.5�1043.43)+60 1.021180 =1063.57 (0.5�1043.43+0.5�1067.73)+60 1.014197 =1099.96 This is the te 0 value: (0.5�1063.57+0.5�1099.96)+60 0.997500 =1144.63 So, the value of the bonassuming no fault (VN is 1,144.63. This value coulalso have been obtainemore rectly using the benchmark scount factors from Exhibit 2: €60 × 1.002506 + €60 × 0.985093 + €60 × 0.955848 + €1,060 × 0.913225 = €1,144.63. The benefit of using the binomiinterest rate tree to obtain the VNis ththe same tree is useto calculate the expecteexposure to fault loss. The cret valuation austment table is now prepared following these steps: Step 1: Compute the expecteexposures scribein the following, using the binomiinterest rate tree prepareearlier. The expected exposure for te 4 is €1,060. The expected exposure for te 3 is [(0.1250 × €980.75) + (0.3750 × €1,005.54) + (0.3750 × €1,022.86) + (0.1250 × €1,034.81)] + 60 = €1,072.60. The expected exposure for te 2 is [(0.25 × €1,008.76) + (0.50 × €1,043.43) + (0.25 × €1,067.73)] + €60 = €1,100.84. The expected exposure for te 1 is [(0.50 × €1,063.57) + (0.50 × €1,099.96)] + 60 = €1,141.76. Step 2: LG= Exposure × (1 – Recovery rate) Step 3: The initiPO also known the hazarrate, is provi1.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multiplied the previous tes’ POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate (1.5000%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.5000%). Step 4: POS is terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 5: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 6: scount factors () in YeT are obtainefrom Exhibit 2. Step 7: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €1,144.63 – CVA = €1,144.63 – €43.39 = €1,101.24. 本题的二叉树构建不是直接根据forwarrate直接求得的,还需要不断调整,这个过程比较复杂,但是后续的计算又在此基础上,这个二叉树构建calibration的过程考试会考吗,我们需要掌握到哪种程度啊

2022-07-31 06:54 1 · 回答