问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
请问用BASE法则算RE，不应该是
REb+NI-div declared=REe
div paid=-div declared+△div payables
为什么题中直接默认是div paid？
这样算求出的div declared=1，那么div paid=-1 答案应该是25-（-1）=26？
NO.PZ2018062004000106问题如下 Company A reportenet income of $56 million. Baseupon the following balansheets (in $millions),what's the amount of net financing cash flows in 2017? Assume vin paiare classifieCFF.A.$24 million.B.$25 million.C.$26 million.A is correct. CFF inflow=(55-50)+(100-80)=25REB+NI-v paiREE,95+56-v pai150, v pai1Net CFF=25-1=24这题能具体讲一下吗，没有理解，是用base法则吗
NO.PZ2018062004000106问题如下Company A reportenet income of $56 million. Baseupon the following balansheets (in $millions),what's the amount of net financing cash flows in 2017? Assume vin paiare classifieCFF.A.$24 million.B.$25 million.C.$26 million.A is correct. CFF inflow=(55-50)+(100-80)=25REB+NI-v paiREE,95+56-v pai150, v pai1Net CFF=25-1=24老师，我算出来的vin150-95-56=-1最后结果就是-1+25=24对吗？然后再问一下，这个25就是vinpayables应该怎么理解啊
NO.PZ2018062004000106问题如下Company A reportenet income of $56 million. Baseupon the following balansheets (in $millions),what's the amount of net financing cash flows in 2017? Assume vin paiare classifieCFF.A.$24 million.B.$25 million.C.$26 million.A is correct. CFF inflow=(55-50)+(100-80)=25REB+NI-v paiREE,95+56-v pai150, v pai1Net CFF=25-1=24为什么最后还要用25-1才等于vnpai1不是直接就是vnpai题目也直接说cff=vinpai那答案不应该是1嘛？有点晕
NO.PZ2018062004000106 问题如下 Company A reportenet income of $56 million. Baseupon the following balansheets (in $millions),what's the amount of net financing cash flows in 2017? Assume vin paiare classifieCFF. A.$24 million. B.$25 million. C.$26 million. A is correct. CFF inflow=(55-50)+(100-80)=25REB+NI-v paiREE,95+56-v pai150, v pai1Net CFF=25-1=24 API不是二级市场的增值吗？公司应该拿不到这些钱呀
我理解公司发股票融资是发行时拿到的是一级市场的inflow，后面的aition与股价涨跌与公司融资没关系呀，他又没卖 所以这一年的inflow就是期初的50m 麻烦帮我看下理解错在哪啦？
