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luvsweeties · 2019年03月21日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016031001000111 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

请问老师,Reading 54开始就讲了capital gain or loss是用公式,sell price-carrying value? 记得老师还特别强调是carrying value,

讲carrying value=purchase price+ the amortized amount of the discount or premium 

千万不要记错,用purchase price,这题理解不了为什么用purchase price

1 个答案
已采纳答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2019年03月22日

这道题可以计算出sell price =96.69,同时知道purchase price=par=100,但是不知道 the amortized amount of the discount or premium具体是什么。可以理解为就目前的条件,carrying value=purchase price,不用考虑the amortized amount of the discount or premium。

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NO.PZ2016031001000111 问题如下 investor purchases a nine-year, 7% annucoupon payment bona priequto pvalue. After the bonis purchaseanbefore the first coupon is receive interest rates increase to 8%. The investor sells the bonafter five years. Assume thinterest rates remain unchange8% over the five-yeholng perio The capitgain/loss per 100 of pvalue resulting from the sale of the bonthe enof the five-yeholng periois closest to A.loss of 8.45. B.loss of 3.31. C.gain of 2.75. B is correct.The capitloss is closest to 3.31 per 100 of pvalue. After five years, the bonhfour years remaining until maturity anthe sale priof the bonis 96.69, calculateas:7(1.08)1+7(1.08)2+7(1.08)3+107(1.08)4=96.69\frac7{{(1.08)}^1}+\frac7{{(1.08)}^2}+\frac7{{(1.08)}^3}+\frac{107}{{(1.08)}^4}=96.69(1.08)17​+(1.08)27​+(1.08)37​+(1.08)4107​=96.69The investor purchasethe bona priequto pvalue (100). Because the bonwpurchasea priequto its pvalue, the carrying value is pvalue. Therefore, the investor experiencea capitloss of 96.69 - 100 = -3.31.考点capitgain(loss)解析一开始是以面值100购入债券,当收到第一笔coupon前,利率上涨至8%,五年后投资者又将债券卖出。现在题目要我们求的是capitgain(loss)。capitgain(loss)衡量的是债券售价和carrying value之间的差距,这道题的carrying value就是100,那我们只要算出selling price,两项相减即可。利用计算器计算债券售价N=4,PMT=7,I/Y=8,FV=100,求得PV= -96.69。求得的96.69是债券第五年卖出的sale prcie,债券在第五年能卖多少钱,取决于未来现金流折到第五年共有多少。故capitloss = 96.69-100 = -3.31,故B正确。 请问如果题目问题去掉capit单纯问gain/loss 是不是要考虑持有期获得的利息进来呢

2023-11-01 20:19 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2016031001000111 问题如下 investor purchases a nine-year, 7% annucoupon payment bona priequto pvalue. After the bonis purchaseanbefore the first coupon is receive interest rates increase to 8%. The investor sells the bonafter five years. Assume thinterest rates remain unchange8% over the five-yeholng perio The capitgain/loss per 100 of pvalue resulting from the sale of the bonthe enof the five-yeholng periois closest to A.loss of 8.45. B.loss of 3.31. C.gain of 2.75. B is correct.The capitloss is closest to 3.31 per 100 of pvalue. After five years, the bonhfour years remaining until maturity anthe sale priof the bonis 96.69, calculateas:7(1.08)1+7(1.08)2+7(1.08)3+107(1.08)4=96.69\frac7{{(1.08)}^1}+\frac7{{(1.08)}^2}+\frac7{{(1.08)}^3}+\frac{107}{{(1.08)}^4}=96.69(1.08)17​+(1.08)27​+(1.08)37​+(1.08)4107​=96.69The investor purchasethe bona priequto pvalue (100). Because the bonwpurchasea priequto its pvalue, the carrying value is pvalue. Therefore, the investor experiencea capitloss of 96.69 - 100 = -3.31.考点capitgain(loss)解析一开始是以面值100购入债券,当收到第一笔coupon前,利率上涨至8%,五年后投资者又将债券卖出。现在题目要我们求的是capitgain(loss)。capitgain(loss)衡量的是债券售价和carrying value之间的差距,这道题的carrying value就是100,那我们只要算出selling price,两项相减即可。利用计算器计算债券售价N=4,PMT=7,I/Y=8,FV=100,求得PV= -96.69。求得的96.69是债券第五年卖出的sale prcie,债券在第五年能卖多少钱,取决于未来现金流折到第五年共有多少。故capitloss = 96.69-100 = -3.31,故B正确。 一。 这是一个9年期中间卖掉,第五年的时候为什么是100+7??为社么不能根据9年期的条件求出PV,然后根据PV求出5年后的FV?二。 这类的题目思路是当前的现金流向后复利几期,为什么不能用未来现金流折现的思路呢?如果用折现思路,N=5吧?

2023-04-28 21:59 1 · 回答

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2023-04-26 08:08 1 · 回答

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2023-04-26 06:47 1 · 回答

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2022-10-10 03:13 1 · 回答