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Alice_090 · 2018年11月26日

问一道题:NO.PZ2015121810000013

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


Indigo的expected active return难道不应该是1.014*0.15么,为什么答案里用1.014*1.2?

2 个答案
已采纳答案

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2018年11月27日

讲义例题里求expected active return这一步用的info ratio* optimal aggressiveness,这个没错。

所以这道题也可以这样计算0.15*8.11%=1.2165%约等于1.217%

注意题目中用的另一种方法,1.014是Indigo Fund的权重,benchmark的权重是-0.014。由于Indigo Fund的active return=1.2%, benchmark的active return=0。所以optimal 或者说Sharpe ratio最大的组合,它的expected Active return=各权重*各超额收益=1.014*1.2%+(-0.014)*0=1.217%

这道题目的解释其实到算出-0.014那一行就结束了,下面也跟例题一样,是在论证两个Sharpe ratio相同。

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2018年11月26日

同学你好,这道题老师在基础班讲过相似的例题,讲义173页,视频为constructing optimal portfolios。建议你再听一下,会有收获哒~如果还有问题,我们继续沟通。

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2023-11-11 20:14 1 · 回答

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