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emma爱地球 · 2025年02月02日

profit计算

NO.PZ2023040301000027

问题如下:

You decide to sell short 100 shares of Charlotte Horse Farms when it is selling at its yearly high of 56. Your broker tells you that your margin requirement is 45% and that the commission on the purchase is $155. While you are short the stock, Charlotte pays a $2.50 per share dividend. At the end of one year, you buy 100 shares of Charlotte at 45 to close out your position and are charged a commission of $145. What is your rate of return on the investment?

选项:

A.

20.56%

B.

22.65%

C.

18.56%

解释:

Profit on a short sale = Begin value — Ending value — Dividends( Interest)— Trans. costs

ü Beginning value of investment = $56.00 x 100 =$5,600 (Sold under a short sale arrangement)

ü Ending value of investment = $45.00 x 100=$4,500

ü Transaction costs= $155 + $145 =$300.00

ü Dividends = $2.50 x 100 shares =$250.00

ü Profit= $5,600 — $4,500 — $250 — $300= $550.00

Ø Initial investment = Margin requirement + Commission = (0.45 x $5,600) + $155= $2,520 + $155= $2,675

The rate of return on your investment is 20.56%=$550.00 / $2,675

老师,我想了一下,总觉得这一题在利润计算那里要扣掉买入时候的佣金是有问题的,因为它已经算入初始成本了,所以不应该在计算利润的时候重复扣除。

为了验证我自己做了一个很小的例子,麻烦老师看一眼是不是这样



emma爱地球 · 2025年02月02日

或者就在原题里面计算,如果我最终买回的价格不是¥45,而是¥52买回的,按照题目的解题方法,我这一笔交易的利润就是负数,可是实际上从现金流来看,不是负数呀

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2025年02月02日

同学你好,第一,你上传的图片的解法里面——既然初始投资的100已经包含了10元的佣金,而你最后计算收益的时候直接减的已经是包含了这个10元佣金的100(而不是90)了,自然不需要再多减一次佣金了,否则就是一笔交易减3次佣金了——所以你图上的计算方式里,确实不需要额外多减一次佣金

第二,你的追问,“我最终买回的价格不是¥45,而是¥52买回的,按照题目的解题方法,我这一笔交易的利润就是负数”——(56-52)*100 = 400是这笔交易股价下跌带来的收益——属于净现金流入;

2.5*100 =250是这笔交易作为卖空方需要支付出去的分红支出——是现金流出

买卖支出的佣金 =155+145 = 300——也是现金流出

最后400 -250-300 = -150 ——确实是现金流出,是负数啊?即便从现金流角度看也是纯负数,助教没有理解你为什么觉得不是负数呢

这道题和任何了一道题库里买卖股票有佣金费用的题目都没有任何差别,计算利润的逻辑也和我们生活中的经验是完全一致的。我们只会在意最后实际投资一次以后口袋里能剩多少净收益,那买入和卖出的2次佣金作为掏出去的钱就一定要扣除掉。


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