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Zoe邹 · 2024年12月31日

请问我用0.65%和0.75%分别先乘以1/4,再分别带入(1+RFX)(1+RFC)-1计算,最后再加总,为什么不对?

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NO.PZ202112010200003101

问题如下:

What is the approximate unhedged excess return to the United States–based credit manager for an international credit portfolio index equally weighted across the four portfolio choices, assuming no change to spread duration and no changes to the expected loss occur?

选项:

A.

–0.257%

B.

–0.850%

C.

0.750%

解释:

A is correct. We solve for the excess spread by subtracting Expected Loss from

the respective OAS:


Recall that the United States–based investor must convert the euro return to US dollars using RDC = (1 + RFC) (1 + RFX) – 1, so the USD IG and USD HY positions comprising half the portfolio return an average 0.80%, while the EUR IG and EUR HY positions return –1.314% in US dollar terms (= ((1 + ((0.65% + 0.75%)/2)) × 0.98) – 1), so –0.257% = ((0.80% – 1.314%)/2).

如题

1 个答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2025年01月02日

因为投资了EUR IG债券,对于美国投资者来讲,相当于同时投资了2个资产,一个是IG债券,另一个是EUR这种货币。


所以像这道题,给EUR IG投资1/4,那么EUR IG债券,以及EUR货币,这两类资产对组合收益的影响都是1/4


如果只给0.65%乘以1/4,然后再算(1+0.65%×1/4)×(1+RFX)-1

相当于认为EUR IG债券对组合的收益影响占比是1/4,而RFX对组合收益的影响是1。这个显然和上面分析出来的结果不对等。


所以应该是先按(1+RFC)×(1+RFX)-1算每个债券的最终总收益。先把2个EUR债券的收益换成USD计价。

然后再把4个债券的USD总收益按照权重进行加权。这块建议按照答案的方法算,都是标准算法。

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