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1111 · 2024年12月28日

请问一下A答案中“incremental coupon”没有问题吗?可以再解释一下吗?

NO.PZ2021120102000028

问题如下:

Which of the following statements best describes a credit curve roll-down strategy?

选项:

A.

Returns from a credit curve roll-down strategy can be estimated by combining the incremental coupon from a longer maturity corporate bond with price appreciation due to the passage of time.

B.

A synthetic credit curve roll-down strategy involves purchasing protection using a single-name CDS contract for a longer maturity.

C.

A credit curve roll-down strategy is expected to generate a positive return if the credit spread curve is upward sloping.

解释:

C is correct. A credit curve roll-down strategy will generate positive return only under an upward-sloping credit spread curve.

As for A, the benchmark yield changes must be separated from changes due to credit spreads, and under B, a synthetic credit roll-down strategy involves selling protection using a single-name CDS contract for a longer maturity.

发亮老师,A答案“Returns from a credit curve roll-down strategy can be estimated by combining the incremental coupon from a longer maturity corporate bond with price appreciation due to the passage of time.”其中说incremental coupon...这个没有错误吗?因为rolldown并非coupon?另外后半句说因为时间的推移感觉是不是也能说得通,因为creditcurve 横坐标也是t,确实也是因为随着时间推移credit spread下降(因为短期的credit spread更低)

1 个答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2024年12月30日

A选项的incremental coupon没有问题。

选项A讨论的是roll down strategy,这个策略包含2块收益,一个是coupon带来的收益。一个是债券期限改变带来的价差收益。

注意,如果说是roll down strategy收益,策略收益包含以上2块。

但是如果说是roll down return,这仅仅是价差收益。


另外incremental coupon是指:仅仅与credit spread相关的coupon,不含benchmark带来的coupon

这一章可以从另一个角度拆解coupon,coupon可以拆成:benchmark coupon + credit risk带来的coupon。原版书有一道例题就是详细地计算过,coupon里面有多少金额是来自Benchmark,有多少是来自credit。选项A的incremental coupon就是指,因为credit而带来的超额coupon。


选项A的incremental coupon完全没有问题。因为选项A讨论的是credit curve roll down strategy,即,只在信用风险曲线(credit spread)上做roll down策略。

所以整个策略收益就只含信用风险相关的。于是,credit curve roll down的coupon收益就只能是incremental coupon,且价差收益只能是与credit spread改变带来的价差。


with price appreciation due to the passage of time

这句确实说的通。因为他就是roll down的价差收益。随着债券的期限变短,债券的折现率由期初的长期债YTM,变成了期末的短期债YTM,从而造成债券出现价差。但是,如果上句不做任何限定,只是这一句呈现,那他描述的是债券折现率YTM的改变产生的价差。


还是一样的问题。债券的YTM=benchmark YTM + credit spread。

YTM改变带来的roll down价差分成2部分:benchmark YTM改变带来的价差,以及credit spread改变带来的价差。

选项A是只做credit spread curve的roll down,所以这个价差只能是credit spread带来的。

期初债券有一个长期credit spread作为折现率的一部分,期末有一个短期credit spread做为折现率的一部分,credit spread改变带来价差,整个Benchmark rate是不能变的,不能包括benchmark YTM改变的价差。


with price appreciation due to the passage of time这句没做限定是credit spread改变,只说这句就表明是YTM改变带来的价差,而本题是credit spread curve roll down strategy,所以前后两句不匹配。


这句改成正确的为:

Returns from a credit curve roll-down strategy can be estimated by combining the incremental coupon from a longer-maturity corporate bond with price appreciation due to the roll-down on the credit spread curve.

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