为何是除以95%对应的1.645？另外，，2.323是什么？
问题如下图：
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解释：
NO.PZ2016072602000060 问题如下 a risk manager for Bank ABJohn is asketo calculate the market risk capitcharge of the bank’s trang portfolio unr the 1996 internmols approach. The V(95%, one-y) of the last trang y is US30,000; the average V(95%, one-y) for the last 60 trang ys is US20,000. The multiplier is k=3. Assuming the return of the bank’s trang portfolio is normally stribute whis the market risk capitcharge of the trang portfolio? US84,582 US189,737 US268,200 US134,594 C is correct. The average Vtimes 3 is US60,000. Because this is higher thyestery's VAR, this is the binng number. Multiplying 10\sqrt{10}10 x 2.323/1.645 = 4.47 gives US268,200. 计算market risk charge 其实就是basel要求的对应的VAR。先比较昨天的和过去60天*k的，谁大用谁。然后再把大的60000，调整成99% 10天？
NO.PZ2016072602000060 问题如下 a risk manager for Bank ABJohn is asketo calculate the market risk capitcharge of the bank’s trang portfolio unr the 1996 internmols approach. The V(95%, one-y) of the last trang y is US30,000; the average V(95%, one-y) for the last 60 trang ys is US20,000. The multiplier is k=3. Assuming the return of the bank’s trang portfolio is normally stribute whis the market risk capitcharge of the trang portfolio? US84,582 US189,737 US268,200 US134,594 C is correct. The average Vtimes 3 is US60,000. Because this is higher thyestery's VAR, this is the binng number. Multiplying 10\sqrt{10}10 x 2.323/1.645 = 4.47 gives US268,200. 老师VaR的计算不是单尾吗，那为什么这里不是除以1.96，反而用的是1.65
NO.PZ2016072602000060 为什么乘以根十？
NO.PZ2016072602000060 为什么在前一天的VaR和过去60天平均的VaR中选择了较小的那一呢？ 能帮忙指出这部分在1996 Amenng的讲义里哪一部分吗？因为我只在后面巴3的修正中看到要在risk capital中增加stresseVaR，而这个VaR用的是前一天和过去六十天平均的较大值。 谢谢
