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你涵妹 · 2024年12月10日

z spread是什么

NO.PZ2021120102000015

问题如下:

Which of the following statements about credit spread measures is most accurate?

选项:

A.

The DM is the yield spread over the MRR established upon issuance to compensate investors for assuming an issuer’s credit risk.

B.

The Z-DM will be above the DM if the MRR is expected to remain constant over time.

C.

The yield spread for a corporate bond will be equal to the G-spread if the government benchmark yield curve is flat.

解释:

C is correct.

The yield spread is the simple difference between a bond’s all-in YTM and a current on-the-run government bond of similar maturity, while the G-spread is an interpolation of government benchmark yields. If the government bond yield curve is flat, these two measures will equal one another.

能解释一下z spread嘛

翻讲义的时候看到if the yield curive is upward, the calculated z-dm will be lower than dm

这是为什么


然后这里为什么b错了

1 个答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2024年12月11日

纠正一下,不是Z-spread,Z-spread是固定利率债券的信用风险指标(credit spread),这道题讨论的是浮动利率债券的信用风险指标,DM(discount margin)和Z-DM(Zero discount margin)


这些个credit spread都是债券折现模型中的折现率。

在浮动利率债券中,分母的折现率是(一个MRR+DM)or (一条MRR曲线 + Z-DM)


可以看到,DM和Z-DM最大的区别就是配套的市场参考利率MRR不一样。

和DM搭配的是一个单一的市场参考利率MRR,就是当前时刻的MRR,不同期限的现金流使用同一个MRR

而和Z-DM搭配的是一条MRR曲线,不同期限的现金流使用对应期限的MRR。不同期限的现金流的MRR都不一样。


举个例子,假设债券是2年期的浮动利率债券。当前市场上的参考利率MRR=1%.


如果是用DM的话,那么债券第一年的cash flow折现率就是(MRR+DM)=(1%+DM)

债券第二年的cash flow折现率也是(1%+DM),折现只是用单一的MRR


但如果用Z-DM的话,搭配的就是一条MRR曲线。

当前时刻的MRR=1%,所以第一年cash flow的折现率是(1%+Z-DM)

当MRR曲线向上倾向时,未来第1期的市场参考利率一定大于当前的MRR=1%,假设这个市场参考利率是2%,所以第2年的cash flow折现率是(2%+Z-DM),这是不同期限的cash flow,要使用对应期限的MRR。所以会用到一条MRR curve


注意,这里是同一只债券求了不同的credit spread,所以Z-DM和DM都源自于同一个债券的数据。这个债券的市场价格一样,现金流一样。

唯一不同的是,折现率的模式不一样。但我们知道,折现率一定是相等的。

即,(1%+DM)和【(1%+Z-DM)、(2%+Z-DM)整体看的某种平均值】是一定相等的,否则不可能得到相同的折现值。


既然折现率相等,那么Z-DM一定小于DM。因为Z-DM里面使用了更高的MRR,为了让折现率还相等,那Z-DM必须小一点。

这就是结论,当利率曲线向上倾斜时,同一个债券的Z-DM一定小于DM


选项B说,if the MRR is expected to remain constant over time,这里是假设未来所以各期的MRR都是恒定的,等于现在当期的MRR。

这句话告诉我们,MRR曲线是一个水平的线,未来各个期限的MRR都等于当前时刻的市场MRR。

这样的话,在(一条MRR曲线+Z-DM)这样的折现率里面,不同期限的Cash flow使用的都是相同大小的MRR,且都等于当前时刻的MRR

而在DM里面(MRR+DM)这个市场参考利率也是当前市场的MRR。


这说明,在选项B的假设下,DM和Z-DM在数值上一定相等,因为两者都是使用同一个MRR进行折现。

而选项B说Z-DM above DM就是错误的。

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