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yanan · 2024年11月02日

Min[(0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 - 6,300,000; 1,500,000]

NO.PZ2024042601000135

问题如下:

A manager from the structured credit risk desk at a bank is presenting to a group of newly hired risk analysts on calculating cash flows in a securitization structure. The manager illustrates the procedure with the existing collateral pool of loans and the corresponding liabilities, all with a maturity of 5 years, using the following information:

The manager makes additional observations as follows:

The loans in the collateral pool pay a fixed spread of 2.2% over the swap curve

There were no defaults in year 1

The value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 1 was EUR 0

What is the value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 2 if there are 8 defaults in year 2?

选项:

A.EUR 600,000 B.EUR 1,056,000 C.EUR 2,544,000 D.EUR 3,600,000

解释:

C is correct: The value of the overcollateralization account (OC) at end of year 2 (OC2) includes the compounded year-1 value of the OC (OC1), the recovered principal amount at the end of year 2 (R2) and is computed as follows:

OC2 = (1 + swap rate)*OC1 + R2.

Since there is no default in year 1, consider

Min[(0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 - 6,300,000; 1,500,000] = -600,000

As that is negative, the overcollateralization account is entirely depleted at the end of year 1.

For year 2,

First:

Excess spread at the end of year 2 = L – B

where,

L = interest from surviving loans = (0.035 + 0.022)*(100 – 8) * 1,000,000

= EUR 5,244,000

B = bond coupon interest due to both junior and senior bonds

= USD 6,300,000 (given)

Therefore, excess spread = 5,244,000 – 6,300,000 = EUR -1,056,000 (negative).

Second:

Recovery principal amount in year 2 = R2 = 0.45 * 8 * 1,000,000 = EUR 3,600,000, which would flow into the overcollateralization account (OC).

Therefore, since the OC had a net EUR 0 at the beginning of year 2, then the interest shortfall (calculated in the first step above, as negative) should be paid from the OC account, leaving the OC with a net amount = 3,600,000 – 1,056,000 = EUR 2,544,000. (See discussions on page 166-167, [CR-8]).

A is incorrect. = EUR 600,000 is the result obtained by ignoring the number of defaults in year 2 and using an incorrect formula: B – L = 6,300,000 – (0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 = EUR 600,000

B is incorrect. EUR 1,056,000 is the excess spread as derived in C above.

D is incorrect. EUR 3,600,000 is the recovered principal in year 2 as derived above

Min[(0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 - 6,300,000; 1,500,000]

这个不应该是0.035-0.022乘以后面的数嘛

为啥这里是相加

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2024年11月04日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


swap rate是3.5%, 题目说了The loans in the collateral pool pay a fixed spread of 2.2% over the swap curve。 因此利率应该是3.5%+2.2%。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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NO.PZ2024042601000135 问题如下 A managerfrom the structurecret risk sk a bank is presenting to a group ofnewly hirerisk analysts on calculating cash flows in a securitizationstructure. The manager illustrates the procere with the existing collateralpool of loans anthe corresponng liabilities, all with a maturity of 5 years,using the following information:The manager makes aitionobservations follows:• The loans in the collaterpool pa fixespreof 2.2%over the swcurve• There were no faults in ye1• The value of the overcollateralization account the enf ye1 wEUR 0Whis the value of the overcollateralization account theenof ye2 if there are 8 faults in ye2? A.EUR 600,000 B.EUR 1,056,000 C.EUR 2,544,000 EUR 3,600,000 C is correct: The value of the overcollateralization account(Oenof ye2 (OC2) inclus the compounyear-1 value of the OC (OC1),the recovereprincipamount the enof ye2 (R2) anis computeasfollows:O= (1 + swrate)*O+ R2.Sinthere is no fault in ye1, consirMin[(0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 - 6,300,000; 1,500,000] =-600,000this negative, the overcollateralization account isentirely pletethe enof ye1.For ye2,First:Excess sprethe enof ye2 = L – Bwhere,L = interest from surviving loans = (0.035 + 0.022)*(100 –8) * 1,000,000= EUR 5,244,000B = boncoupon interest e to both junior ansenior bon= US6,300,000 (given)Therefore, excess spre= 5,244,000 – 6,300,000 = EUR-1,056,000 (negative).SeconRecovery principamount in ye2 = R2 = 0.45 * 8 *1,000,000 = EUR 3,600,000, whiwoulflow into the overcollateralizationaccount (OC).Therefore, sinthe OC ha net EUR 0 the beginning ofye2, then the interest shortfall (calculatein the first step above, asnegative) shoulpaifrom the OC account, leaving the OC with a net amount= 3,600,000 – 1,056,000 = EUR 2,544,000. (See scussions on page 166-167,[CR-8]).A is incorrect. = EUR 600,000 is the result obtainebyignoring the number of faults in ye2 anusing incorreformulB – L= 6,300,000 – (0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 = EUR 600,000B is incorrect. EUR 1,056,000 is the excess spreasrivein C above.is incorrect. EUR 3,600,000is the recovereprincipin ye2 riveabove 请解答,谢谢

2024-11-05 09:00 2 · 回答

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