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徐威廉 · 2024年10月07日

5%x0.25为什么放在期初的现金流里?这个accrued payment不应该是最好到期结算的吗?

NO.PZ2022071101000011

问题如下:

A bank buys a bond on its coupon payment date. Three months later, in order to generate immediate liquidity, the bank decides to repo the bond. Details of the bond and repo transaction are as follows:

If the repo contract expires 6 months from now, what is the bank’s expected cash outflow at the end of the repo transaction?

选项:

A.

USD 94,497

B.

USD 95,702

C.

USD 97,630

D.

USD 100,739

解释:

中文解析:

B是正确的。

repo初期的现金流=notional value*(current bond price%+coupon rate*3/12)*(1-repo haircut)=(100,000)*(98%+5%*0.25)*(1-5%) = 94,288; repo到期的现金流=期初流入*(1+repo int rate*6/12)=94,288*(1+3%*0.5)=95,702。

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B is correct. Cash inflow at beginning of repo: (100,000)*(98%+5%*0.25)*(1-5%) = 94,288; Cash outflow at end of repo: 94,288*(1+3%*0.5)=95,702

A is incorrect. Left out the accrued interest of 5%*0.25 in the correct equation for cash inflow.

C is incorrect. Used 1 instead of 98% for price in the correct equation for cash inflow.

D is incorrect. Left out haircut of 5% in the correct equation for cash inflow.

请画一个时间轴的图,并标注一下每个时间点发生的现金流,跪谢老师

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa27 · 2024年10月08日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


5%x0.25为什么放在期初的现金流里?

repo 期初相当于是把债券卖出去,而repo发生的事件节点刚好是过去3个月,所以卖的时候肯定要计算3个月的AI加入其中。

具体可以参考这个视频的例题,基本上出了数字外,其他都一样。解题套路也是一样的。如果有问题,我们可以进一步讨论。


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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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