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恬恬爱吃香菜 · 2018年09月27日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018062004000175 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

老师,这道题目能否这么理解.在FR中一年就把所有费用记了,相当于FR中利润应该比较低,交的税比较少,而在TR中费用分摊到三年,相当于每年利润比较高,交的税比较多,所以两者做差小于0,产生DTA

ps.为什么小于0会有DTA,不是很理解,请老师帮忙解答一下,谢谢

1 个答案

品职辅导员_小明 · 2018年09月28日

那你可以这样想,既然税务局已经通知你每年交的税比较多,但是你自己的FR中交的税比较少,这样2者之间就会存在差异,就是你今年交的税多了,将来就可以少缴税,这样相当于将来有个经济利益的流入,那么就符合ASSET的定义,所以是DTA

反之就是DTL

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