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506623496 · 2024年08月12日

本题解析

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NO.PZ201601050100000201

问题如下:

Guten Investments GmbH, based in Germany and using the EUR as its reporting currency, is an asset management firm providing investment services for local high net worth and institutional investors seeking international exposures. The firm invests in the Swiss, UK, and US markets, after conducting fundamental research in order to select individual investments. Exhibit 1 presents recent information for exchange rates in these foreign markets.

In prior years, the correlation between movements in the foreign-currency asset returns for the USD- denominated assets and movements in the exchange rate was estimated to be +0.50. After analyzing global financial markets, Konstanze Ostermann, a portfolio manager at Guten Investments, now expects that this correlation will increase to +0.80, although her forecast for foreign-currency asset returns is unchanged.

Ostermann believes that currency markets are efficient and hence that long-run gains cannot be achieved from active currency management, especially after netting out management and transaction costs. She uses this philosophy to guide hedging decisions for her discretionary accounts, unless instructed otherwise by the client.

Ostermann is aware, however, that some investors hold an alternative view on the merits of active currency management. Accordingly, their portfolios have different investment guidelines. For these accounts, Guten Investments employs a currency specialist firm, Umlauf Management, to provide currency overlay programs specific to each client‘s investment objectives. For most hedging strategies, Umlauf Management develops a market view based on underlying fundamentals in exchange rates. However, when directed by clients, Umlauf Management uses options and a variety of trading strategies to unbundle all of the various risk factors (the -Greeks-) and trade them separately.

Ostermann conducts an annual review for three of her clients and gathers the summary information presented in Exhibit 2.


1. Based on Exhibit 1, the domestic-currency return over the last year (measured in EUR terms) was higher than the foreign-currency return for:

选项:

A.

USD-denominated assets.

B.

GBP-denominated assets

C.

CHF-denominated assets.

解释:

C is correct.

The domestic-currency return is a function of the foreign-currency return and the percentage change of the foreign currency against the domestic currency. Mathematically, the domestic-currency return is expressed as:

RDC = (1 + RFC)(1 + RFX) 1

where RDC is the domestic-currency return (in percent), RFC is the foreign-currency return, and RFX is the percentage change of the foreign currency against the domestic currency. Note that this RFX expression is calculated using the investor‘s domestic currency (the EUR in this case) as the price currency in the P/B quote. This is different than the market-standard currency quotes in Exhibit 1, where the EUR is the base currency in each of these quotes. Therefore, for the foreign currency (USD, GBP, or CHF) to appreciate against the EUR, the market-standard quote (USD/EUR, GBP/EUR, or CHF/EUR, respectively) must decrease; i.e. the EUR must depreciate.

The Euro-Swiss (CHF/EUR) is the only spot rate with a negative change (from 1.2175 to 1.2080), meaning the EUR depreciated against the CHF (the CHF/EUR rate decreased). Or put differently, the CHF appreciated against the EUR, adding to the EUR-denominated return for the German investor holding CHF-denominated assets. This would result in a higher domestic-currency return (RDC), for the German investor, relative to the foreign-currency return (RFC) for the CHF-denominated assets. Both the Euro-dollar (USD/EUR) and Euro-sterling (GBP/EUR) experienced a positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciated against these two currencies (the USD/EUR rate and the GBP/EUR rate both increased). This would result in a lower domestic-currency return (RDC) for the German investor relative to the foreign-currency return (RFC) for the USD- and GBP-denominated assets.

A is incorrect because the Euro-dollar (USD/EUR) experienced a positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciated against the USD (the USD/EUR rate increased). This would result in a lower domestic-currency (i.e. EUR-denominated) return relative to the foreign-currency return for the USD-denominated assets, since the USD has depreciated against the EUR.

B is incorrect because the Euro-sterling (GBP/EUR) experienced a positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciated against the GPB (the GBP/EUR rate increased). This would result in a lower domestic-currency (i.e. EUR-denominated) return relative to the foreign-currency return for the GBP-denominated assets, since the GBP has depreciated against the EUR.

中文解析:

本币是EUR,本题问的是RDC大于RFC的是哪一个币种。

根据公式1+RDC=(1+RFC)×(1+RFX)可知,要使得RDC大于RFC,RFX应该大于0。、

并且要注意RFX 的汇率表达形式是DC/FC。

因此外币升值的币种,或者对应本币贬值的那一个币种,即是使得RDC大于RFC的那一个币种。

表格1中给到的数据注意汇率表达形式是FC/DC的形式,研究对象是本币,因此找哪一组币种下本币是贬值的即可。

只有最后一列CHF/EUR中,本币EUR是贬值的,即对应的CHF是升值的,所以选择C

中文解析是不是写反了?要使得Rdc大于Rx,应该是找Rx小于0的?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa35 · 2024年08月13日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


1+RDC=(1+RFC)×(1+RFX),如果RFX小于0,那么后面的1+RFX就是小于1的,那说明1+RDC<1+RFC,推出RDC

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NO.PZ201601050100000201 问题如下 1. Baseon Exhibit 1, the mestic-currenreturn over the last ye(measurein EUR terms) whigher ththe foreign-currenreturn for: A.USnominateassets. B.GBP-nominateassets C.CHF-nominateassets. C is correct.The mestic-currenreturn is a function of the foreign-currenreturn anthe percentage change of the foreign currenagainst the mestic currency. Mathematically, the mestic-currenreturn is expresseas:R = (1 + RFC)(1 + RFX) – 1where R is the mestic-currenreturn (in percent), RFC is the foreign-currenreturn, anRFX is the percentage change of the foreign currenagainst the mestic currency. Note ththis RFX expression is calculateusing the investor‘s mestic curren(the EUR in this case) the pricurrenin the P/B quote. This is fferent ththe market-stanrcurrenquotes in Exhibit 1, where the EUR is the base currenin eaof these quotes. Therefore, for the foreign curren(US GBP, or CHF) to appreciate against the EUR, the market-stanrquote (USEUR, GBP/EUR, or CHF/EUR, respectively) must crease; i.e. the EUR must preciate.The Euro-Swiss (CHF/EUR) is the only spot rate with a negative change (from 1.2175 to 1.2080), meaning the EUR preciateagainst the CHF (the CHF/EUR rate crease. Or put fferently, the CHF appreciateagainst the EUR, aing to the EUR-nominatereturn for the Germinvestor holng CHF-nominateassets. This woulresult in a higher mestic-currenreturn (R), for the Germinvestor, relative to the foreign-currenreturn (RFfor the CHF-nominateassets. Both the Euro-ll(USEUR) anEuro-sterling (GBP/EUR) experiencea positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciateagainst these two currencies (the USEUR rate anthe GBP/EUR rate both increase. This woulresult in a lower mestic-currenreturn (R) for the Germinvestor relative to the foreign-currenreturn (RFfor the US anGBP-nominateassets.A is incorrebecause the Euro-ll(USEUR) experiencea positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciateagainst the US(the USEUR rate increase. This woulresult in a lower mestic-curren(i.e. EUR-nominate return relative to the foreign-currenreturn for the USnominateassets, sinthe UShpreciateagainst the EUR.B is incorrebecause the Euro-sterling (GBP/EUR) experiencea positive change in the spot rate, meaning the EUR appreciateagainst the GPB (the GBP/EUR rate increase. This woulresult in a lower mestic-curren(i.e. EUR-nominate return relative to the foreign-currenreturn for the GBP-nominateassets, sinthe Ghpreciateagainst the EUR.中文解析本币是EUR,本题问的是R大于RFC的是哪一个币种。根据公式1+R=(1+RFC)×(1+RFX)可知,要使得R大于RFC,RFX应该大于0。、并且要注意RFX 的汇率表达形式是/FC。因此外币升值的币种,或者对应本币贬值的那一个币种,即是使得R大于RFC的那一个币种。表格1中给到的数据注意汇率表达形式是FC/的形式,研究对象是本币,因此找哪一组币种下本币是贬值的即可。只有最后一列CHF/EUR中,本币EUR是贬值的,即对应的CHF是升值的,所以选择 题目应该问的本国的return 比foreign currenasset return 高吧?这里的foreign currenreturn ,我理解是指的外汇的收益吧?而非外汇资产的收益

2023-12-24 22:31 1 · 回答

这道题我们并不知道外国的资产收益率 Rfc如何,为何单从外币的升值就能判断R?

2019-01-13 09:51 2 · 回答