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小菜菜 · 2024年08月06日

请教一下老师这句话如何理解

NO.PZ2023010407000016

问题如下:

Mukilteo also plans to recommend a specialist hedge fund strategy that would allow PWPF to maintain a high Sharpe ratio even during a financial crisis when equity markets fall.

The specialist hedge fund strategy that Mukilteo plans to recommend is most likely:

选项:

A.

cross-asset volatility trading between the US and Japanese markets.

B.

selling equity volatility and collecting the volatility risk premium.

C.

buying longer-dated out-of-the-money options on VIX index futures.

解释:

C is correct. Mukilteo needs to recommend a specialist hedge fund strategy that can help PWPF maintain a high Sharpe ratio even in a crisis when equity markets fall. Buying longer-dated out-of-the-money options on VIX index futures is a long equity volatility position that works as a protective hedge, particularly in an equity market crisis when volatility spikes and equity prices fall. A long volatility strategy is a useful potential diversifier for long equity investments (albeit at the cost of the option premium paid by the volatility buyer). Because equity volatility is approximately 80% negatively correlated with equity market returns, a long position in equity volatility can substantially reduce the portfolio’s standard deviation, which would serve to increase its Sharpe ratio. Longer-dated options will have more absolute exposure to volatility levels (i.e., vega exposure) than shorter-dated options, and out-of-the-money options will typically trade at higher implied volatility levels than at-the-money options.

A is incorrect because cross-asset volatility trading, a type of relative value volatility trading, may often involve idiosyncratic, macro-oriented risks that may have adverse effects during an equity market crisis.

B is incorrect because the volatility seller is the provider of insurance during crises, not the beneficiary of it. Selling volatility provides a volatility risk premium or compensation for taking on the risk of providing insurance against crises for holders of equities and other securities. On the short side, option premium sellers generally extract steadier returns in normal market environments.

选项的解析中提到: out-of-the-money options will typically trade at higher implied volatility levels than at-the-money options.

请教一下老师这句话如何理解?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

伯恩_品职助教 · 2024年08月06日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,这个是在衍生品中学习过的哦。要注意学科之间的联系哦。

原因我大概给你说下吧,1987 年股市崩盘后,期权定价开始出现波动微笑。它们事先并未出现在美国市场,这表明市场结构更符合 Black-Scholes 模型的预测。 1987 年之后,交易员意识到可能会发生极端事件,并且市场存在显着偏差。期权定价需要考虑极端事件的可能性。因此,在现实世界中,隐含波动率会随着期权移动更多的 ITM 或 OTM 而增加或减少

Volatility smiles started occurring in options pricing after the 1987 stock market crash. They were not present in U.S. markets beforehand, indicating a market structure more in line with what the Black-Scholes model predicts. After 1987, traders realized that extreme events could happen and that markets have a significant skew. The possibility for extreme events needed to be factored into options pricing. Therefore, in the real world, implied volatility increases or decreases as options move more ITM or OTM

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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