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welkin · 2024年07月31日

能解释一下这道题吗,为什么AC不对

NO.PZ2022122701000038

问题如下:

A manager has a mandate to be fully invested with a benchmark that is a blend of large-cap stocks and investment-grade bonds. Which of the following is not an indication that style drift has occurred? The manager:

选项:

A.

initiates an allocation to small-cap stocks.

B.

decreases investments in investment-grade corporate bonds.

C.

increases allocation to cash in anticipation of a market decline.

解释:

Correct Answer: B

In the normal course of business, the manager conforms to its style by reducing exposure to some class of investment grade bonds. Increasing allocation to cash and small-cap stocks is in violation of the mandate to be fully invested with equity exposure to large-cap stocks.

如题

1 个答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2024年08月01日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


只要是偏离到现在投资领域范围之外,都算是style drift。

1、选项C不正确,主要是因为题干中有“fully invested”这个关键词。现在把所有的资产都投资于large-cap stocks and investment-grade bonds,并不持有现金。因此,选项C增加现金资产的配置就偏离了现有的投资领域范围,现在的投资领域仅仅限于large-cap stocks and investment-grade bonds,所以增加现金算作style drift。故而,选项C不正确。

2、同理,A也是不正确的。增加small-cap stocks的投资也偏离了目前的投资领域范围,所以不正确。

3、选项B只是减少了investment-grade corporate bond的投资,那就有可能增加了large-cap stocks的投资,这样一来就只是在现有投资领域内发生了权重的变化,并不能证明一定发生了style drift,故而选项B正确。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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