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Shuangshuang · 2024年07月21日

为什么第二年到期前违约用的是第一年的违约概率呢

NO.PZ2024042601000032

问题如下:

A risk analyst is evaluating the credit qualities of a financial institution and its counterparties assuming stress conditions prevail over the next 2 years. The analyst assesses the possibility of the financial institution defaulting on its counterparties and uses this information to estimate its debt valuation adjustment. The 1-year CDS on the financial institution currently trades at 240 bps. The analyst assumes a constant recovery rate of 80% for the financial institution and a constant correlation between the credit spread of the financial institution and the credit spread of the counterparties. Assuming a constant hazard rate process, what is the probability that the financial institution will survive in the first year and then default before the end of the second year?

选项:

A.

8.9%

B.

10.0%

C.

11.3%

D.

21.3%

解释:

This question requires one to first find the hazard rate (λ), which is estimated as follows:

λ= Spread/(1 – recovery rate) = [(240/10,000)/(1 – 0.8)] = 0.12 = 12.0%

Thus, 12.0% is the constant hazard rate per year. The joint probability of survival up to time t and default over (t, t+τ) is:


The joint probability of survival the first year and defaulting in the second year is:


为什么第二年到期前违约用的是第一年的违约概率呢

3 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa27 · 2024年07月21日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


为什么第二年到期前违约用的是第一年的违约概率呢

不是啊,解析用的是第一年的生存率*第二年的违约率

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

Shuangshuang · 2024年07月21日

第二年的违约率t=1嘛?为什么不是t=2啊

pzqa27 · 2024年07月21日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


边际违约率是一样的,从0-1的违约率和1-2的违约率是一样的。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

边德馨 · 2024年07月21日

答案里用的是第一年不违约的概率*第二年违约的概率