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SHAO · 2024年07月05日

老师,为什么这里计算interest时不乘以(1-40%)呢?

NO.PZ2023032701000054

问题如下:

Based on the following information, determine whether Vertically Integrated Manufacturing (VIM) earned any residual income for its shareholders:

VIM had total assets of $3,000,000, financed with twice as much debt capital as equity capital.

VIM’s pretax cost of debt is 6 percent and cost of equity capital is 10 percent.

VIM had EBIT of $300,000 and was taxed at a rate of 40 percent.

Calculate residual income by using the method based on deducting an equity charge.

选项:

A.

$8,000

B.

$8,200

C.

$8,400

解释:

Yes, VIM earned a positive residual income of $8,000.

Equity charge = Equity capital × Required return on equity

= (1/3) ($3,000,000) × 0.10= $1,000,000 × 0.10 = $100,000

Residual income = Net income -Equity charge= $108,000 -$100,000 = $8,000

老师,为什么这里计算interest时不乘以(1-40%)呢?什么情况下就要乘,什么情况下不乘呢,请问怎么理解

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王园圆_品职助教 · 2024年07月05日

同学你好,这道题就是正常的计算NI啊

你计算NI的时候,按照利润表正常的计算顺序,EBIT就是正常减去interest啊,怎么会需要减去interest* (1-t)呢?

另外,interest* (1-t)本质是考虑了利息的税盾作用后的产物

你看下一步EBIT减去利息后得到的就是pretax income——注意,这里要交的tax expense ,就是考虑了利息费用会对pretax income造成减少的影响,从而就已经导致tax expense变得更小了呢——所以相当于这里列示的tax expense 里面就已经考虑了利息的税盾和各类经营费用的税盾作用了哦

所以正常的计算NI这种我们都不需要用interest* (1-t)来进行计算,而只有把interest单独拿出来,在别的计算公式中(如FCFF,FCFE等)的时候,才需要用interest* (1-t)来带入计算

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