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506623496 · 2024年06月30日

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NO.PZ201803130100000107

问题如下:

In the risk parity asset allocation approach that Müller uses, the weight that Müller places on domestic bonds should be:

选项:

A.

less than 25%.

B.

equal to 25%.

C.

greater than 25%.

解释:

C is correct.

A risk parity asset allocation is based on the notion that each asset class should contribute equally to the total risk of the portfolio. Bonds have the lowest risk level and must contribute 25% of the portfolio’s total risk, so bonds must be overweighted (greater than 25%). The equal contribution of each asset class is calculated as:

wi* Cov(ri,rp)=1nδρ2

where

wi = weight of asset i

Cov(ri,rp) = covariance of asset i with the portfolio

n = number of assets

σ2= variance of the portfolio

In this example, there are four asset classes, and the variance of the total portfolio is assumed to be 25%; therefore, using a risk parity approach, the allocation to each asset class is expected to contribute (1/4 × 25%) = 6.25% of the total variance. Because bonds have the lowest covariance, they must have a higher relative weight to achieve the same contribution to risk as the other asset classes.

明白本题原理,对于文中提法有疑惑

1.. The expected return of the domestic bond asset class is the lowest of the asset classes,

本句只说了domestic bond return最小,没有说risk最小,是据此退出的risk最小?


2.and the returns of the domestic bond asset class have the lowest covariance with other asset class returns.

domestic bond 和其他资产的协方差最小,没有说公式里的和组合的协方差最小,怎么推出?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2024年07月02日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


1、是的,风险和收益一般来说成正比


2、确实是推出来的,但是并不严谨the returns of the domestic bond asset class have the lowest covariance with other asset class returns的确可是domestic asset与portfolio中的其他资产的协方差低,那么如果要得到domestic asset与portfolio 的协方差低,还要方差统计量,但如果这样的话,这道题就没法解了。

而这道题考的知识点是ACTR1=ACTR2=...以及ACTR=wi*Cov(Ri,Rp)两个公式,如果把the returns of the domestic bond asset class have the lowest covariance with other asset class returns理解成Cov(Ri,Rp)最小,才能选出答案。

考试中应该不会有这种模棱两可的表达,万一出现了,而有没有单个资产的方差信息,那么为了解题,也只能按照cov(Ri,Rp)最小来理解了。

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