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lucky · 2018年08月26日

问一道题:NO.PZ2015120604000011 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


为什么FV=0,而不是PV=0? 还有就是 哪里看出先付年金?本题是之前付了几年的年金,现在开始收年金?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年08月26日

同学你好,本题的意思是,在很多年前这个投资者买了一个年金,第一笔payment的收入发生在今天,而且是求今天的年金现值,所以是先付年金,其实这个画个图就非常明了了。本题不是说之前付了几年的年金,现在开始收年金。对于本题,相当于投资者在多年前买了一笔年金,是一次性付款的,只是从今天开始才得到了第一笔收入,持续20年。等到20年之后,相当于你已经得到了最后一笔收入5000,除了这5000没有别的收入或者支出了。所以FV等于0。因为我们是要计算PV,相当于这20笔payment折现到今天,所以PV不会等于0。本题的图解如下:

由图可以很轻易的判断这是先付年金,如果是后付年金的话,第一笔payment应该发生在T=N+1才对。

lucky · 2018年08月27日

茅塞顿开,多谢菲菲!👍👍

菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年08月27日

加油哦💪🏻

lucky · 2018年08月27日

嗯嗯!😀😀

菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年08月27日

*纠个小错:我画的图中“N+20”应该改为“N+19”才对哦~不然就是21笔payment了。

lucky · 2018年08月27日

谢谢您细致的解答!多谢!

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