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tristabo · 2024年05月29日

最后一句话怎么理解

  1. FRM I
  2. Financial Markets And Products

NO.PZ2020021203000072

问题如下：

A four-month European call option on a stock is currently selling for USD 2.50. The current stock price is USD 54, and the strike price is USD 50. A dividend of USD 1.50 is expected in one month. The risk-free interest rate is 3% per annum (annually compounded) for all maturities. What opportunities are there for an arbitrageur?

解释：

The lower bound for the option price is

S−PV(K)−PV(Divs)=54−501.031/3−1.51.031/12=2.99S-PV(K)-PV(Divs)=54-\frac{50}{1.03^{1/3}}-\frac{1.5}{1.03^{1/12}}=2.99

The option is selling for less than its lower bound. An arbitrageur can buy the option and short the stock for an initial cash inflow of USD 51.50. The arbitrageur has to pay dividends of USD 1.50 after one month.

If the option is exercised, the cost of closing out the short position will be USO 50. If it is not exercised, the cost of closing out the short position will be less than USD 50. The worst-case scenario for the arbitrageur is therefore:

Today: +51.50,

One month: -1.50, and

Four months: -50.00.

When the discount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive discount rate gives a positive sum of present values.

If option is exercised, the cost of closing short position is 50是什么意思啊

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1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2024年05月30日

嗨，从没放弃的小努力你好：


现在这个投机者策略是long option 同时short stock。到期后如果long call 执行，那么我们可以按照option规定的执行价格买回股票，然后关闭掉short stock的头寸。option的执行价格是50，所以我们需要花50块买回股票。

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NO.PZ2020021203000072 问题如下 A four-month Europecall option on a stois currently selling for US2.50. The current stopriis US54, anthe strike priis US50. A vinof US1.50 is expectein one month. The risk-free interest rate is 3% per annum (annually compoun for all maturities. Whopportunities are there for arbitrageur? The lower bounfor the option priisS−PV(K)−PV(vs)=54−501.031/3−1.51.031/12=2.99S-PV(K)-PV(vs)=54-\frac{50}{1.03^{1/3}}-\frac{1.5}{1.03^{1/12}}=2.99S−PV(K)−PV(vs)=54−1.031/350​−1.031/121.5​=2.99The option is selling for less thits lower boun arbitrageur cbuy the option anshort the stofor initicash inflow of US51.50. The arbitrageur hto pvin of US1.50 after one month.If the option is exercise the cost of closing out the short position will USO 50. If it is not exercise the cost of closing out the short position will less thUS50. The worst-case scenario for the arbitrageur is therefore:Toy: +51.50,One month: -1.50, anour months: -50.00.When the scount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive scount rate gives a positive sum of present values. When the scount rate is zero, the sum of these cash flows will have zero present value. Any positive scount rate gives a positive sum of present values.麻烦讲解下这几句，谢谢

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NO.PZ2020021203000072 请问这道题的操作过程怎么理解？

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NO.PZ2020021203000072 是strike price加vin？为什么是这两个数相加啊？

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