NO.PZ202209060200004602
问题如下:
According to the information in Exhibit 1 and assuming Berendsen retires in four years, the fixed-income portfolio most likely:选项:
A.should have a shorter duration. B.needs a higher cash flow yield. C.has currently achieved zero replication.解释:
SolutionC is correct. The portfolio’s Macaulay duration of approximately 4.0 matches the time horizon of the liability and can be calculated as follows:
[(Portfolio weightBond 1 × DurationBond 1) + (Portfolio weightBond 2 × DurationBond 2) + (Portfolio weightBond 3 × DurationBond 3)] ÷ 3 = 3.99.
When compared with the single liability due in four years, the portfolio has the same return and duration characteristics of a single zero-coupon bond maturing in four years. The interest rate risk has been immunized, which is known as zero replication.
A is incorrect because the portfolio’s current duration matches the duration of the liability, or retirement date.
B is incorrect because the cash flow yield matches the required investment return. Although not equivalent to investment return, it is likely the portfolio’s return will meet the required rate of return.
老师好,大案里这个:
[(Portfolio weightBond 1 × DurationBond 1) + (Portfolio weightBond 2 × DurationBond 2) + (Portfolio weightBond 3 × DurationBond 3)] ÷ 3 = 3.99.
具体是怎么算出来的啊?我用allocation那三个百分比配合macauly duration算,算得应该是4.0143,是我哪里用的有问题吗