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Wyyyyyj · 2024年04月23日

为什么是1-3%

NO.PZ2023071902000093

问题如下:

Question Inflation rates rise by 1.4% in the US and by 4.6% in the Eurozone. If the nominal spot exchange rate for the USD/EUR falls by 3%, the precise shift in the real exchange rate is nearest to:

选项:

A.0%. B.5%. C.9%.

解释:

Solution

The adjustment in the real exchange rate can be formulated as:

(1-3%)*(1+4.6%)/(1+1.4%) -1 =0.000611≈0

The Foreign Exchange Market and Capital Flows

实际汇率的调整可表示为:

(1-3%)*(1+4.6%)/(1+1.4%) -1 =0.000611≈0

公式为什么前面是1-3%后面还要减去1

1 个答案

笛子_品职助教 · 2024年04月24日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


公式为什么前面是1-3%后面还要减去1


Hello,亲爱的同学~


我们这里需要先了解一个知识点: real exchange rate 变动率的计算。


根据此公式,我们可以推理出变动率的公式。

(1+ FX real 变动率)= (1+ FX mominal 变动率)*(1+ base curency CPI 变动率) / (1+ price currency CPI 变动率)


可得:

FX real 变动率

= (1+ FX mominal 变动率)*(1+ base curency CPI 变动率) / (1+ price currency CPI 变动率) -1


这个公式需要同学掌握并记忆下来,是知识点,经常会考的。


在掌握以上知识点的基础上,我们再看本题:

本题的汇率形式为:USD/EUR。

USD/EUR的名义变动为-3%(fall by 3%)

EUR作为base currency,EUR的CPI为4.6%

USD作为price currency,USD的CPI为1.4%。



FX real 变动率

= (1+ FX mominal 变动率)*(1+ base curency CPI 变动率) / (1+ price currency CPI 变动率) -1

=(1-3%)*(1+4.6%)/(1+1.4%) -1

=0.000611≈0




----------------------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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