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pseudonym · 2024年01月29日

半年的折现率为什么不是用(1+2.5%)^0.5折现呢?

NO.PZ2018113001000052

问题如下:

Olivia, a fund manager, sells $50,000 vega notional of a one-year variance swap on the S&P 500 at a strike of 20% (quoted as annual volatility).

Now six months have passed, and the S&P 500 has experienced a realized volatility of 16% (annualized). On the same day, the fair strike of a new six-month variance swap on the S&P 500 is 19%.

The the current value of the variance swap sold by Olivia (note that the annual interest rate is 2.5%) is:

选项:

A.

$112,963

B.

$ 998,653

C.

$ 159,228

解释:

A is correct.

Volatility strike on existing swap = 20.

Variance strike on existing swap = 20^2 = 400.

Variance notional = Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.

RealizedVol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.

ImpliedVol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.

PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654

The current value of the swap is

VarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]

= –$112,962.9263.

Given that Olivia is short the variance swap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, and it equals $112,963.

中文解析:

本题考察的是对variance swap求value。

直接带入公式:

计算即可。

需要注意以下两点:

1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号

2. strike,implied volatility以及realized volatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。

半年的折现率为什么不是用(1+2.5%)^0.5折现呢?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa31 · 2024年01月29日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


是的,这里用单利就可以了,因为一般libor和swap的利率都用单利,因为swap rate是通过libor 算出来的。

----------------------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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NO.PZ2018113001000052 问题如下 Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 这里给的前半年实现的volatile是16%,这个是年化的。如果算半年的,为什么不用8%呢?谢谢?

2024-08-21 23:46 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018113001000052 问题如下 Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 请问题目中variance已经是Volatility的平方概念,为何公式里还是需要用平方计算?

2024-04-20 17:50 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2018113001000052问题如下Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式variance  swapt=variance  notional×PVt(T)×{tT×[realize volatility(0,t)]2+T−tT×[implie volatility(t,T)]2}−strike2variance\;swap_t=variance\;notional\times PV_t\left(T\right)\times\left\{\frtT\times\left[realize;volatility\left(0,t\right)\right]^2+\frac{T-t}T\times\left[implie;volatility\left(t,T\right)\right]^2\right\}-strike^2varianceswapt​=variancenotional×PVt​(T)×{Tt​×[realizeolatility(0,t)]2+TT−t​×[implieolatility(t,T)]2}−strike2计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 题目给的是 vega notion,不应该要除以(2*strike price)吗?为什么答案没有除以,而且题目也没有给strike price?

2022-04-18 00:17 1 · 回答

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2022-02-23 21:20 1 · 回答