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kkliu · 2023年12月22日

C选项

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NO.PZ202209060200004201

问题如下:

With respect to investment-grade bonds, Larent is most likely correct with respect to which risk consideration?

选项:

A.Credit risk B.Spread risk C.Interest rate risk

解释:

Solution

B is correct. With respect to risk considerations for investment-grade bonds, Larent is most likely correct with respect to spread risk. Spread risk is a function of credit migration. For investment-grade bonds, the risk of credit rating migration (credit deterioration) is greater than the risk of actual credit loss. Accordingly, credit spread volatility, as opposed to outright credit default loss, is a more relevant consideration as it relates to investment-grade bonds. Spread duration measures the credit spread volatility risk in a portfolio of investment-grade bonds.

A is incorrect. Credit loss is a lesser consideration than credit migration for investment-grade bonds. Credit loss is a primary consideration for high-yield bonds.

C is incorrect. For investment-grade corporate bonds, the correlation between credit spreads and the risk-free interest rate is negative, not positive.

老师,麻烦讲一下C选项,谢谢

2 个答案

pzqa015 · 2024年01月21日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


C说: Larent then states that interest rate risk reflects the positive correlation between risk-free interest rates and credit spreads。

这句话错在interest rate risk反映的是risk free rate与credit spread的关系上了,利率风险是指债券价格变动对利率的敏感程度,或者说是债券价格与利率变动的负相关关系,具体来说,risk free rate下降时,债券价格上升,反之亦然。


用公式表示就是△P/P=-MD*△y,债券价格变动与利率变动方向相反。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

pzqa015 · 2023年12月24日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


C说: Larent then states that interest rate risk reflects the positive correlation between risk-free interest rates and credit spreads。

这句话错在positive correlation了,risk free rate与credit spread是负相关关系,具体来说,risk free rate下降时,credit spread一般上升,反之亦然。

现实意义是:risk free rate下降时,一般是经济衰退时,此时,信用风险被放大,所以credit spread是上升的;risk free rate上升时,一般是经济向好时,此时,违约风险小,所以credit spread是下降的。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

506623496 · 2024年01月20日

请问本题用到的结论在讲义或原版书有吗?

506623496 · 2024年01月20日

和另一个回答不太一样,到底是错在positive correlation,还是错在risk free rate与credit spread改为与bond price的关系上?

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