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水瓶公主 · 2023年12月13日

这样理解呢

NO.PZ2016071602000010

问题如下:

Suppose a portfolio consists of four assets. The risk contribution of each asset is as follows: UK large cap, 3.9%;UK small cap, 4.2%; UK bonds, 0.9%; non-UK bonds, 1.1%. Which of the following would not be a possible explanation for the relatively high risk contribution values for UK equities?

选项:

A.

High expected returns on UK equities

B.

High weights on UK equities

C.

High volatilities of UK equities

D.

High correlation of UK equities with all other assets in the portfolio

解释:

A is correct. The risk contribution is proportional to the weight times the beta. The latter involves the correlation between the asset and the portfolio, as well as the volatility of the asset. Higher weight, correlation, and volatility would create higher risk contribution. In contrast, high expected returns would explain a high weight, but not a high risk contribution.

risk contribution=CVAR/VAR,所以CVAR越大,结果越高,那么MVAR越大,就是波动率应该越小越好

2 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2023年12月14日

marginal var越大,这个资产的波动率也是要越大才行的。

这个直观想一下也是这样的,其它参数不变,一个资产波动率很小,那对组合贡献的边际marginal var肯定也越小。

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2023年12月13日

同学你好,没太明白你是要问哪个选项,这题就是直接考得下图这个公式。让解释为什么欧洲股票的CVAR/VAR比例高。那就是因为weight高或者beta大了,beta又随着欧洲股票的波动率和与其他资产的相关性增大而增大,所以BCD都是因素。

水瓶公主 · 2023年12月13日

问的是C low波动率

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