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小太阳 · 2023年11月23日

为什么不用kmv

NO.PZ2023101601000044

问题如下:

A credit manager in the counterparty risk division of a large bank uses a simplified version of the Merton model to monitor the relative vulnerability of its largest counterparties to changes in their valuation and financial conditions. In order to assess the risk of default of three particular counterparties, the manager calculates the distance to default assuming a 1-year horizon (t=1). The counterparties: Company P, Company Q, and Company R, belong to the same industry. Selected information on the companies is provided in the table below:


Using the information above with the assumption that short-term debt is the only liability for each company, and the approximation formula of the distance to default, what is the correct ranking of the counterparties, from most likely to least likely to default?

选项:

A.

P; R; Q

B.

Q; P; R

C.

Q; R; P

D.

R; Q; P

解释:

A is correct.

Distance to Default (DtD) approximates the number of standard deviations to reach the default threshold; thus, the higher the DTD, the least likely to default.


DtD can be simplified by reducing the forward time periods to 1 (t=1) and minimizing the drift factors (µ -σ2/2) that tend to be small (assumed to equal 0) over one period to yield:


[ln(market value of assets/face value of debt)/annual volatility of asset value)].

Using this formula results in: Company P = ln(100/60)/0.10 = 5.11

Company Q = ln(150/100)/0.07 = 5.79

Company R = ln(250/160)/0.08 = 5.58

Q is least likely to default; R is in the middle; P is most likely to default.

老师您好,请问这是哪个知识点里面的内容呀?可以解释一下这道题嘛?谢谢老师

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年11月23日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


这个题目用的其实就是KMV,因为题目提到了“the distance to default assuming a 1-year horizon ”,KMV模型就是计算Distance to Default进而得出违约概率的。


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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