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恬恬爱吃香菜 · 2018年06月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000091 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

老师你好,为什么p4等于F4➖F3, p2等于F2➖F1,谢谢解答

1 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年06月13日

你好。

因为F4代表所有随机变量数值小等于于4的累积概率

而F3代表所有随机变量数值小于等于3的累积概率

从表格来看,这是一个离散随机变量。F(4)-F(3),只有P(4)这么一个数值,别无其他数值。

不客气。

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NO.PZ2017092702000091 问题如下 The cumulative stribution function for a screte ranm variable is shown in the following table. The probability thX will take on a value of either 2 or 4 is closest to: A.0.20. B.0.35. C.0.85. A is correct. The probability thX will take on a value of 4 or less is: F(4) = P(X ≤ 4) = p(1) + p(2) + p(3) + p(4) = 0.60. The probability thX will take on a value of 3 or less is: F(3) = P(X ≤ 3) = p(1) + p(2) + p(3) = 0.50. So, the probability thX will take on a value of 4 is: F(4) – F(3) = p(4) = 0.10. The probability of X = 2 cfounusing the same logiF(2) – F(1) = p(2) = 0.25 – 0.15 = 0.10. The probability of X taking on a value of 2 or 4 is: p(2) + p(4) = 0.10 + 0.10 = 0.20. 为什么不是0.1+0.1-0.01=0.19

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