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沐沐的方盒 · 2023年11月11日

为什么本题算出来的8.11%不是和25%比?而是和active risk比?求老师详解

NO.PZ2015121810000013

问题如下:

Which of the following pairs of weights would be used to achieve the highest Sharpe ratio and optimal amount of active risk through combining the Indigo Fund and benchmark portfolio, respectively?

选项:

A.

1.014 on Indigo and 0.014 on the benchmark

B.

1.450 on Indigo and –0.450 on the benchmark

C.

1.500 on Indigo and 0.500 on the benchmark

解释:

A is correct.

The optimal amount of active risk is:

σA=IRSRBσB=0.150.333×18%=8.11%\sigma_A=\frac{IR}{SR_B}\sigma_B=\frac{0.15}{0.333}\times18\%=8.11\%

The weight on the active portfolio (Indigo) would be 8.11%/8.0% = 1.014 and the weight on the benchmark portfolio would be 1 – 1.014 = – 0.014.

考点:Optimal amount of active risk

解析:Optimal amount of active risk

σA=IRSRBσB=0.150.333×18%=8.11%\sigma_A=\frac{IR}{SR_B}\sigma_B=\frac{0.15}{0.333}\times18\%=8.11\%

Indigo Fund现在的active risk是8%,为了使active risk达到最优水平,就将Indigo Fund与benchmark再做组合,形成active risk最优的combined fund。

假设Indigo Fund的权重为c, 那么

σA=cσAfund,  8.11%=c8%,  c=1.014\sigma_A=c\sigma_A^{fund},\;8.11\%=c8\%,\;c=1.014

因此,benchmark的权重为1-1.014=-0.014

如题

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2023年11月12日

8.11%是计算出来的optimal active risk。要和同样为active risk的8%比。

25%是主动基金自身的standard deviation,是一个绝对的风险指标。和相对风险指标active risk对比没有意义。

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