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sabrinayue · 2023年11月10日

这道题为什么不能用risk neutral的公式 lamda等于spread除以1-RR?

NO.PZ2020033002000032

问题如下:

An investment manager who specializes in credit-linked bonds is trying to find the credit-linked yield spread on a one-year BB-rated coupon issued by a multinational company. With the current market risk-free rate of 2% per annum and a default rate of 8% for BB-rated bonds and a default loss rate of 70%, a reasonable yield to maturity for this bond is

选项:

A.

4.51%

B.

6.00%

C.

7.50%

D.

8.05%

解释:

D is correct.

考点:Infer Credit Risk from Corporate Bond Prices

解析:

假设收益率为y,则有公式

11+y=1(1π)1+rf+fπ1+rf\frac1{1+y}=\frac{1\ast(1-\mathrm\pi)}{1+r_f}+\frac{\mathrm f\ast\mathrm\pi}{1+r_f}

代入数字,有

1/(1+y)=(1-8%)/(1+2%)+(1-70%)*8%/(1+2%)

得到 y=8.05%

这道题为什么不能用risk neutral的公式 lamda等于spread除以1-RR?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa27 · 2023年11月14日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


因为那只是一个近似的计算,题目解释使用的这种算法是精确的计算,由于选项之间差距不大,因此这个题推荐使用精确计算

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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