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Sibyl · 2023年10月27日

C×的原因是因为expectedloss是专指对损失做期望么?

NO.PZ2018091701000079

问题如下:

Fund B has a VaR of $10 million at 1% for a year. It means:

选项:

A.

There is a 1% chance of losing $10 million over one year.

B.

There is a 1% chance that the minimum loss is $10 million over the year.

C.

There is a 99% chance that the expected loss over the year is smaller than $10 million.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Understanding Value at Risk

解析:Value at Risk是minimum loss(1% chance)或maximum loss ( 99% chance),而不是真实的损失或是预期损失,所以AC错。

C×的原因是因为expectedloss是专指对损失做期望么? 也就是求loss的均值?

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2023年10月28日

同学你好,

是的。