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陈翠铭 · 2018年06月09日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000088 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:我觉得这个不应该有第三步呀。问的就是fail,也就是小于4%的概率。那第二步正好算的就是小于4呀。那答案应该是B呀。求澄清。谢谢!

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

1 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年06月09日

答案没错。

Minimize (Rp< RL) 等价于求Minimize  P (Rp< RL)。

据此,答案首先算出来P(≤-0.2308),

你所说的第三部我理解为是P(≤-0.2308)=1-P(0.2308)这一步。这一步是套用了正态分布标准化的公式。

因为对于一个分位数是一个负数的累积概率函数,正太分布表格是不直接提供其对应概率的,所以这一步只是一个公式转化,求得的结果仍然代表投资回报小于4%的概率。

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