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phoebeqp · 2023年10月08日

为什么题目中value in use跟PV of expected cash flow 不相等

NO.PZ2023020602000141

问题如下:

A Canadian printing company which prepares its financial statements according to IFRS has experienced a decline in the demand for its products. The following information relates to the company’s printing equipment as of 31 December 2010.


The impairment loss (in C$) is closest to:

选项:

A.0 B.60,000.00 C.70,000.00

解释:

Under IFRS, an asset is considered to be impaired when its carrying amount exceeds its recoverable amount (the higher of fair value less cost to sell or value in use).

Fair value less costs to sell: 480,000 – 50,000 = 430,000Value in use = 440,000

Recoverable amount (higher value) = 440,000

Impairment loss under IFRS = Carrying value – recoverable amount = 500,000 – 440,000 = 60,000

如题。课堂上不是说value in use就等于未来现金流的折现吗

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2023年10月09日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


如题。课堂上不是说value in use就等于未来现金流的折现吗


请看以下讲义截图——黄色框框部分,这里的PV of future cash flow必须是来自于持续使用所带来的,而本题中没有强调是持续使用得到的,所以和讲义说的并不完全一致


此外,讲义这里的PV of future cash flow from continued use只是value in use的一种(是一个举例),所以我们最终还是应该采用value in use作为最准确的金额

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