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小鸣哥哥 · 2023年09月29日

画图法和题目的理解

NO.PZ2023020101000011

问题如下:

They move to valuation of a bond futures contract employed by Sheroda. Parisi provides Curry with the following information for a Treasury bond and calculates the price of a futures contract on this bond. The bond has a face value of $100,000, pays a 7% semiannual coupon, and matures in 15 years. The bond is priced at $156,000, has no accrued interest, and yields 2.5%. The futures contract expires in 8 months, and the annualized risk-free rate is 1.5%. There are multiple deliverable bonds, and the conversion factor for this bond is 1.098.

Based on the information provided by Parisi, which of the following correctly calculates the futures price of the Treasury bond

选项:

A.

f 0 ( T )= [ $156,000 ( 1.015 ) ( 8/ 12 ) −$3,508.6958 ] /1.098 =$140,298.21.

B.

f 0 ( T )= [ $156,000 ( 1.015 ) ( 8/ 12 ) 3,491.325 ]/ 1.098 =$140,314.03.

C.

f 0 ( T )=1.098[ $156,000 ( 1.015 ) ( 8/ 12 ) $3,508.6958 ]=$169,144.08.

解释:

The futures price is calculated as follows:

f 0 ( T )= 1 /CF( T ) { FV[ B 0 ( T+Y )+A I 0 ]A I T FVC I 0,T }

There is no accrued interest, but the bond pays a $3,500 coupon in 6 months, so the future value of the coupon at expiration will be $3,508.6958 = 3500(1.015)(2/12).

f 0 ( T )= [ $156,000 ( 1.015 ) ( 8/ 12 ) $3,508.6958 ] /1.098 =$140,298.21.

你好老师,


在课件中有介绍画图法,其中对中间bond发放的couple首先要折现到t=0时刻,S0 = B0+AI0-PV(C0),在和future中的(QFP*CF+AI)/(1+rf)T, 但是解释中,直接对couple进行FVCI,所以不理解为什么Couple不用折现后就直接(1+rf)T?



第二,对题目的理解,对于还有8个月到期的future,如何在时间轴上面体现这8个月,可以是一次couple也可以是二次couple。


两次couple,也就是当前在4月份,过两个月到第一次6月半年一次的couple,在六个月后就到的12月的第二次couple,请问这个题目的解释不到位,还是我理解上面有问题?



1 个答案

pzqa35 · 2023年10月04日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


本题考察的是对fixed-income futures估值。

注意这道题目出的不是很严谨,解析中也有一些错误。关于本题,重点回顾对fixed-income futures定价的知识点,对答案和解析不必纠结。

首先,看一下选项中给的都是f0(T),但是具体的表达式中涉及到除以CF(1.098),因此可以推断题目本身要问的是QFP。

然后,根据题干信息可知:标的债券面值为$100,000,票息率为7%,半年付息一次,15年到期。并且告诉我们B0=$156,000,无风险利率为1.5%,合约还有8个月到期,CF为1.098。没有accrued interest。

具体分析:没有accrued interest,即AI0=0;半年付息一次,因此6个月的时刻会有一笔coupon。根据画图法可知,在0时刻:

向上的箭头为:B0+AI0-PVC=$156,000 + 0 – [$100,000*7%*1/2] / (1+1.5%)6/12;

向下的箭头为:FP+AIT向前折现8个月到0时刻的值,即QFP*CF+AIT向前折现8个月的值,具体为:[QFP*1.098+AIT] / (1+1.5%)8/12 ;

令向上箭头等于向下的箭头,可得:

选项A中忽略了AIT (即上面式子中分母位置的100,000*7%*1/2*2/6),因此选项A虽然是本题的答案,但是也是有些许问题的。


1.对于直接对couple进行FVCI,我们可以看到直接给coupon折现到0时刻在复利到8个月后与直接把在6月份支付的coupon直接复利两个月到8月的结果是一样的,这里只是直接简化了这个计算过程而已。

2.对于Coupon次数的理解,我们根据题目中的具体已知条件来看,此题没有特殊说明coupon的支付时间,我们就按照我们当前时刻开始半年后为下一次的支付。

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