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· 2023年09月19日

还是没懂A为什么不对

NO.PZ2016072602000062

问题如下:

Your bank is implementing the AIRB approach for credit risk, the AMA for operational risk, and the internal models approach for market risk. The chief risk officer (CRO) wants to estimate the bank's total risk by adding up the regulatory capital for market risk, credit risk, and operational risk. The CRO asks you to identify the problems with using this approach to estimate the bank’s total risk. Which of the following statements about this approach is incorrect?

选项:

A.

It assumes market, credit, and operational risks have zero correlation.

B.

It uses a 10-day horizon for market risk.

C.

It ignores strategic risks.

D.

It ignores the interest risk associated with the bank's loans.

解释:

A is correct. Adding up the capital charges assumes perfect correlations (or at least high correlations, implying extreme shocks happen at the same time), not zero correlations. The market risk charge uses a 10-day horizon, so statement b. is correct. The Basel capital charges do ignore strategic risk and interest rate risk in the banking book, so statements c. and d. are correct.

既然三者完全不相关,岂不是说明correlation为0?为啥等于1呢,这不就是说明三者完全正相关了吗?依然不明白,感谢回复

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2023年09月20日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这里是通过将各风险的regulatory capital求和来计算总风险的,而regulatory capital = 8% * RWA,也就是说regulatory capital的本质是RWA,也就是资产价值(风险加权后的)。所以我们在进行求和时,惯例做法都是将资产价值直接相加,也就是假设是完美相关,相关度=1。因此这里的正确解释是:没有考虑相关性带来的分散化效果。

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