开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

小爽加油呀 · 2023年09月07日

N为什么不用0.5和1

NO.PZ2020033002000034

问题如下:

Grapefruit Bank issued two semi-annual interest-bearing credit bonds, of which bond A matures after half a year, the coupon rate is 8.5%, the current price is $ 98, and the corresponding half-year T-bill interest rate is 4.5%. The bond B expires after one year, the coupon rate is 10%, the current price is $ 101, and the corresponding one-year T-bill rate is 5%. Assuming that their recovery rates are all 40%, and they will only default on the coupon payment date, which of the following statements is correct?

选项:

A.

The market implied risk-neutral default probability in the first half of the year is higher than that in the second half.

B.The market implied risk-neutral default probability in the first half of the year is lower than that in the second half.

C.The market implied risk-neutral default probability is equal in the first half and the second half.

D.

The market implied risk-neutral default probability in the first half and the second half cannot be compared.

解释:

A is correct.

考点:Spread Risk-DVCS and Credit Spread Curve

解析:对于bondA,通过金融计算器:PV=-98 FV=100 PMT=4.25 N=1 CPT I/Y=6.3776 年化YTM=12.76%spread=YTM-rf=12.76%-4.5%=8.255%债券B:PV=-101 FV=100 PMT=5 N=2 CPT I/Y=4.466% 年化YTM=8.93%spread=YTM-rf=8.93%-5%=3.93%根据题目已知RR=40%,那么spread=PD*RR,谁的spread大,PD肯定就大,A这个半年期bond的PD大于B这个一年期的bond,那么前半年的PD也就肯定大于后半年的PD

为啥用1和2,用0。5算出来是i/y=8.7610,这个是不是直接可以看做年化r

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2023年09月08日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


答案解析里面把coupon已经调整为半年的coupon了,分别是4.25和5,所以N也要以半年为单位,半年对应N=1,一年对应N=2。


Bond A的PV = 98,完整的公式是98 = (100+4.25)/(1+y/2)^1,所以y_A = 12.76%。

BondB:101=5/(1+y/2) + (100+5)/(1+y/2)^2,所以y_B=8.93%


----------------------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

  • 1

    回答
  • 0

    关注
  • 171

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2020033002000034 问题如下 Grapefruit Bank issuetwo semi-annuinterest-bearing cret bon, of whibonA matures after half a year, the coupon rate is 8.5%, the current priis $ 98, anthe corresponng half-yeT-bill interest rate is 4.5%. The bonB expires after one year, the coupon rate is 10%, the current priis $ 101, anthe corresponng one-yeT-bill rate is 5%. Assuming ththeir recovery rates are all 40%, anthey will only fault on the coupon payment te, whiof the following statements is correct? The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis higher ththin the seconhalf. B.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis lower ththin the seconhalf. C.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability is equin the first half anthe seconhalf. The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half anthe seconhalf cannot compare is correct.考点SpreRisk-anCret SpreCurve解析对于bon,通过金融计算器PV=-98 FV=100 PMT=4.25 N=1 CPT I/Y=6.3776 年化YTM=12.76%spreaYTM-rf=12.76%-4.5%=8.255%债券BPV=-101 FV=100 PMT=5 N=2 CPT I/Y=4.466% 年化YTM=8.93%spreaYTM-rf=8.93%-5%=3.93%根据题目已知RR=40%,那么spreaPRR,谁的sprea,P定就大,A这个半年期bonP于B这个一年期的bon那么前半年的P就肯定大于后半年的P sprea该是我预计会损失的部分吧,那不应该就是PLG。我怎么记得之前的题也是用的这个。请老师指导一下,学迷糊了

2023-11-08 08:10 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2020033002000034问题如下 Grapefruit Bank issuetwo semi-annuinterest-bearing cret bon, of whibonA matures after half a year, the coupon rate is 8.5%, the current priis $ 98, anthe corresponng half-yeT-bill interest rate is 4.5%. The bonB expires after one year, the coupon rate is 10%, the current priis $ 101, anthe corresponng one-yeT-bill rate is 5%. Assuming ththeir recovery rates are all 40%, anthey will only fault on the coupon payment te, whiof the following statements is correct? The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis higher ththin the seconhalf. B.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis lower ththin the seconhalf.C.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability is equin the first half anthe seconhalf. The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half anthe seconhalf cannot compare is correct.考点SpreRisk-anCret SpreCurve解析对于bon,通过金融计算器PV=-98 FV=100 PMT=4.25 N=1 CPT I/Y=6.3776 年化YTM=12.76%spreaYTM-rf=12.76%-4.5%=8.255%债券BPV=-101 FV=100 PMT=5 N=2 CPT I/Y=4.466% 年化YTM=8.93%spreaYTM-rf=8.93%-5%=3.93%根据题目已知RR=40%,那么spreaPRR,谁的sprea,P定就大,A这个半年期bonP于B这个一年期的bon那么前半年的P就肯定大于后半年的PspreaP️RR在讲义哪里讲的

2023-08-04 17:56 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2020033002000034问题如下 Grapefruit Bank issuetwo semi-annuinterest-bearing cret bon, of whibonA matures after half a year, the coupon rate is 8.5%, the current priis $ 98, anthe corresponng half-yeT-bill interest rate is 4.5%. The bonB expires after one year, the coupon rate is 10%, the current priis $ 101, anthe corresponng one-yeT-bill rate is 5%. Assuming ththeir recovery rates are all 40%, anthey will only fault on the coupon payment te, whiof the following statements is correct? The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis higher ththin the seconhalf. B.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis lower ththin the seconhalf.C.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability is equin the first half anthe seconhalf. The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half anthe seconhalf cannot compare is correct.考点SpreRisk-anCret SpreCurve解析对于bon,通过金融计算器PV=-98 FV=100 PMT=4.25 N=1 CPT I/Y=6.3776 年化YTM=12.76%spreaYTM-rf=12.76%-4.5%=8.255%债券BPV=-101 FV=100 PMT=5 N=2 CPT I/Y=4.466% 年化YTM=8.93%spreaYTM-rf=8.93%-5%=3.93%根据题目已知RR=40%,那么spreaPRR,谁的sprea,P定就大,A这个半年期bonP于B这个一年期的bon那么前半年的P就肯定大于后半年的P违约概率咋还可以拆分成上半年下半年?这四个债券放一块是为了什么呢?P两两相同?解题完全不明白。谢谢啊

2023-07-24 18:45 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2020033002000034问题如下 Grapefruit Bank issuetwo semi-annuinterest-bearing cret bon, of whibonA matures after half a year, the coupon rate is 8.5%, the current priis $ 98, anthe corresponng half-yeT-bill interest rate is 4.5%. The bonB expires after one year, the coupon rate is 10%, the current priis $ 101, anthe corresponng one-yeT-bill rate is 5%. Assuming ththeir recovery rates are all 40%, anthey will only fault on the coupon payment te, whiof the following statements is correct? The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis higher ththin the seconhalf. B.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half of the yeis lower ththin the seconhalf.C.The market implierisk-neutrfault probability is equin the first half anthe seconhalf. The market implierisk-neutrfault probability in the first half anthe seconhalf cannot compare is correct.考点SpreRisk-anCret SpreCurve解析对于bon,通过金融计算器PV=-98 FV=100 PMT=4.25 N=1 CPT I/Y=6.3776 年化YTM=12.76%spreaYTM-rf=12.76%-4.5%=8.255%债券BPV=-101 FV=100 PMT=5 N=2 CPT I/Y=4.466% 年化YTM=8.93%spreaYTM-rf=8.93%-5%=3.93%根据题目已知RR=40%,那么spreaPRR,谁的sprea,P定就大,A这个半年期bonP于B这个一年期的bon那么前半年的P就肯定大于后半年的P4.5%与5%两个量纲不一样,一个是半年的一个是一年的,用8.93%—5%没有意见,但是12.755%—4.5%,因为4.5%是半年的rf,是否需要4.5%*2?

2023-07-11 14:56 1 · 回答