开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

Albert_Panda · 2023年08月28日

请问gilt是什么意思?

NO.PZ2023032703000034

问题如下:

An asset manager is asked to build and manage a portfolio of fixed-income bonds to retire multiple corporate debt liabilities. The debt liabilities have a market value of GBP 50,652,108, a modified duration of 7.15, and a BPV of GBP 36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bonds having a market value of GBP 64,271,055, a modified duration of 3.75, and a BPV of GBP 24,102.

The initial surplus of GBP 13,618,947 and the negative duration gap of GBP 12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the debt at, hopefully, a lower cost than a more conservative duration-matching approach.

The duration gap requires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager can choose to over-hedge or under-hedge, however, depending on market circumstances.

The futures contract that the manager buys is based on 10-year gilts having a par value of GBP 100,000. It is estimated to have a BPV of GBP 98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager has purchased, or gone long, 160 contracts. Which statement best describes the asset manager’s hedging strategy and the held view on future 10-year gilt interest rates? The asset manager is:

选项:

A.

A.over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be rising.

B.

over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be falling.

C.

under-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be rising.

解释:

B is correct. The asset manager is over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be falling.

First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) needed to fully hedge (or immunize) the debt liabilities. The general relationship is: Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV.

Asset portfolio BPV is GBP 24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; and Liability portfolio BPV is 36,216.

24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216 Nf = 123.3.

The asset manager is over-hedging because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more than what is needed to close the duration gap. Long, or purchased, positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise and rates go down. The anticipated gains from the strategic decision to overhedge in this case further increase the surplus and reduce the cost of retiring the debt liabilities.

请问gilt是什么意思?谢谢!

2 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa015 · 2023年08月28日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


投资级债券

----------------------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

Albert_Panda · 2023年08月28日

谢谢!那请问高收益债券有类似别称么?

pzqa015 · 2023年08月29日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


没有,一般就说High yield bond(HYB)

----------------------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

  • 2

    回答
  • 0

    关注
  • 253

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2023032703000034 问题如下 asset manager is asketo builanmanage a portfolio of fixeincome bon to retire multiple corporate liabilities. The liabilities have a market value of G50,652,108, a mofieration of 7.15, ana BPV of G36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bon having a market value of G64,271,055, a mofieration of 3.75, ana BPV of G24,102. The initisurplus of G13,618,947 anthe negative ration gof G12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the at, hopefully, a lower cost tha more conservative ration-matching approach. The ration grequires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager cchoose to over-hee or unr-hee, however, penng on market circumstances. The futures contraththe manager buys is baseon 10-yegilts having a pvalue of G100,000. It is estimateto have a BPV of G98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager hpurchase or gone long, 160 contracts. Whistatement best scribes the asset manager’s heing strategy anthe helview on future 10-yegilt interest rates? The asset manager is: A.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. C.unr-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B is correct. The asset manager is over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) neeto fully hee (or immunize) the liabilities. The generrelationship is:Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV. Asset portfolio BPV is G24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; anLiability portfolio BPV is 36,216.24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216Nf = 123.3.The asset manager is over-heing because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more thwhis neeto close the ration gap. Long, or purchase positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise anrates go wn. The anticipategains from the strategic cision to overhee in this case further increase the surplus anrethe cost of retiring the liabilities. 如题,好像和答案思路刚好相反。哪里不对呢?hee的目的不是为了对冲ration gap吗?那达成对冲目的就好了呀,为什么要为了获利overhee,那不能直接用这个钱直接投asset吗?

2024-08-03 21:36 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2023032703000034问题如下 asset manager is asketo builanmanage a portfolio of fixeincome bon to retire multiple corporate liabilities. The liabilities have a market value of G50,652,108, a mofieration of 7.15, ana BPV of G36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bon having a market value of G64,271,055, a mofieration of 3.75, ana BPV of G24,102. The initisurplus of G13,618,947 anthe negative ration gof G12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the at, hopefully, a lower cost tha more conservative ration-matching approach. The ration grequires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager cchoose to over-hee or unr-hee, however, penng on market circumstances. The futures contraththe manager buys is baseon 10-yegilts having a pvalue of G100,000. It is estimateto have a BPV of G98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager hpurchase or gone long, 160 contracts. Whistatement best scribes the asset manager’s heing strategy anthe helview on future 10-yegilt interest rates? The asset manager is: A.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. C.unr-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B is correct. The asset manager is over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) neeto fully hee (or immunize) the liabilities. The generrelationship is:Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV. Asset portfolio BPV is G24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; anLiability portfolio BPV is 36,216.24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216Nf = 123.3.The asset manager is over-heing because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more thwhis neeto close the ration gap. Long, or purchase positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise anrates go wn. The anticipategains from the strategic cision to overhee in this case further increase the surplus anrethe cost of retiring the liabilities. 这题不太好,c也么错。前提是这个pension fun钱,它有💰才可以over hee关键是现在都unr hee没钱,利率上升,这个缺口少买单也可以补上。主要是BPV(liab)下降大于BPV(asset),谢谢老师这题会容易误选C,按照这情况少买点也OK啊,why not

2024-07-11 13:20 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2023032703000034问题如下 asset manager is asketo builanmanage a portfolio of fixeincome bon to retire multiple corporate liabilities. The liabilities have a market value of G50,652,108, a mofieration of 7.15, ana BPV of G36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bon having a market value of G64,271,055, a mofieration of 3.75, ana BPV of G24,102. The initisurplus of G13,618,947 anthe negative ration gof G12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the at, hopefully, a lower cost tha more conservative ration-matching approach. The ration grequires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager cchoose to over-hee or unr-hee, however, penng on market circumstances. The futures contraththe manager buys is baseon 10-yegilts having a pvalue of G100,000. It is estimateto have a BPV of G98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager hpurchase or gone long, 160 contracts. Whistatement best scribes the asset manager’s heing strategy anthe helview on future 10-yegilt interest rates? The asset manager is: A.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. C.unr-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B is correct. The asset manager is over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) neeto fully hee (or immunize) the liabilities. The generrelationship is:Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV. Asset portfolio BPV is G24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; anLiability portfolio BPV is 36,216.24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216Nf = 123.3.The asset manager is over-heing because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more thwhis neeto close the ration gap. Long, or purchase positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise anrates go wn. The anticipategains from the strategic cision to overhee in this case further increase the surplus anrethe cost of retiring the liabilities. Overhee且hee instrument会在利率下降时value上升,所以预期利率下降。 如果Overhee 且take short positions ,则hee instrument会在利率上升时获利,那么就是预期利率上升。这样来推Overhee unrhee 正确吗?

2024-07-10 08:59 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2023032703000034 问题如下 asset manager is asketo builanmanage a portfolio of fixeincome bon to retire multiple corporate liabilities. The liabilities have a market value of G50,652,108, a mofieration of 7.15, ana BPV of G36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bon having a market value of G64,271,055, a mofieration of 3.75, ana BPV of G24,102. The initisurplus of G13,618,947 anthe negative ration gof G12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the at, hopefully, a lower cost tha more conservative ration-matching approach. The ration grequires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager cchoose to over-hee or unr-hee, however, penng on market circumstances. The futures contraththe manager buys is baseon 10-yegilts having a pvalue of G100,000. It is estimateto have a BPV of G98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager hpurchase or gone long, 160 contracts. Whistatement best scribes the asset manager’s heing strategy anthe helview on future 10-yegilt interest rates? The asset manager is: A.A.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. C.unr-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B is correct. The asset manager is over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) neeto fully hee (or immunize) the liabilities. The generrelationship is: Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV. Asset portfolio BPV is G24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; anLiability portfolio BPV is 36,216.24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216 Nf = 123.3.The asset manager is over-heing because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more thwhis neeto close the ration gap. Long, or purchase positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise anrates go wn. The anticipategains from the strategic cision to overhee in this case further increase the surplus anrethe cost of retiring the liabilities. overhee 我是可以算出来的,但是我的思路是未来利率要上升,价格下降,那就担心hee 123份不够,要多hee一些,因为hee就是对冲风险,不是为了gain。答案是利率下降,价格上升,hee更多可以获得gain。就感觉我的思路不知道哪里错。

2023-08-05 20:07 1 · 回答